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Official PaperTier 1100 Questions · 60 Min

SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 14 September Shift 1 with Answers

Exam date
14 September 2025
Shift
Shift 19:00 AM

SSC uploaded the final answer keys with candidates' response sheets for CGL 2025 Tier-I on 09.01.2026. Each paper here is one shift's response sheet, keyed to SSC's marked answers.

Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.

General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q1–25)

  1. Official paper: SSC CGL 2025 Tier-I, held on 14 September 2025, Shift 1 (9:00 AM). Questions and the answer key are as printed on SSC’s candidate response sheet. Explanations are written by BookOfExams. Marking: +2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one.

    Q1.In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Clock : Time :: Thermometer : ?

    • APressure
    • BSpeed
    • CTemperature
    • DDistance

    Answer: (C) Temperature

    A clock measures time. A thermometer measures temperature.

  2. Q2.In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives Plaintiff : Complaint :: Petitioner : ?

    • APlea
    • BAllegation
    • CVerdict
    • DPetition

    Answer: (D) Petition

    A plaintiff files a complaint. A petitioner files a petition.

  3. Q3.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. CDE, FGH, IJK, ?

    • AOJB
    • BTYC
    • CLJN
    • DLMN

    Answer: (D) LMN

    Each group is the next three consecutive letters: CDE, FGH, IJK, LMN.

  4. Q4.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. JKL, MNO, PQR, ?

    • ASFD
    • BBHF
    • CSTU
    • DDTG

    Answer: (C) STU

    Each group is the next three consecutive letters: JKL, MNO, PQR, STU.

  5. Q5.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. LWB → OZE→ RCH → UFK → ?

    • ACGF
    • BBHF
    • CXIN
    • DHIB

    Answer: (C) XIN

    Each letter moves +3 each step: L→O→R→U→X, W→Z→C→F→I, B→E→H→K→N. Next: XIN.

  6. Q6.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: TDGJ, TGMS, TJSB, TMYK, ?

    • ATEFY
    • BTESD
    • CTESO
    • DTPET

    Answer: (D) TPET

    The first letter stays T. The second letter moves +3 (D, G, J, M, P), the third +6 (G, M, S, Y, E) and the fourth +9 (J, S, B, K, T). Next: TPET.

  7. Q7.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: D A F H, D D K O, D G P V, D J U C, ?

    • ADMKA
    • BDJSH
    • CDMNS
    • DDMZJ

    Answer: (D) DMZJ

    The first letter stays D. The second moves +3 (A, D, G, J, M), the third +5 (F, K, P, U, Z) and the fourth +7 (H, O, V, C, J). Next: DMZJ.

  8. Q8.What comes next: 3, 7, 16, 35, 74, ?

    • A153
    • B156
    • C151
    • D152

    Answer: (A) 153

    Each term is double the previous one plus 1, 2, 3, 4, 5: 3×2+1 = 7, 7×2+2 = 16, 16×2+3 = 35, 35×2+4 = 74, 74×2+5 = 153.

  9. Q9.Each of the letters in the word FRIENDLY is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is third from the left and the one that is second from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?

    • A2
    • B4
    • C13
    • D11

    Answer: (D) 11

    FRIENDLY in alphabetical order: D E F I L N R Y. Third from the left is F (6) and second from the right is R (18). Between them the alphabet has 11 letters.

  10. Q10.Which of the following addresses are identical to each other: 1. Amitabh S 112/44 Block-B, Indira Nagar, Lucknow, 226016 2. Amitabh S. 112/44 Block-B, Indira Nagar, Lucknow , 226016 3. Amitabh S. 112/44 Block-B, Indira Nagar, Lucknow , 226016 4. Amitabh S. 112/44 Block B, Indira Nagar, Lucknow , 226016

    • A1 and 2
    • B2 and 3
    • C2 and 4
    • D3 and 4

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3

    Addresses 2 and 3 match exactly. Address 1 has “S” without a full stop, and address 4 has “Block B” without the hyphen.

  11. Q11.Which of the following addresses are identical to each other: 1. Dr Ruchi Jain 4/88, Skyline Residency, Jaipur, 302001 2. Dr. Ruchi Jain 4/88, Skyline Residency, Jaipur , 302001 3. Dr. Ruchi Jain 4/88, Skyline Residency, Jaipur , 302001 4. Dr Ruchi Jain 4/88, Skyline Residency, Jaipur , 302001

    • A1 and 2
    • B2 and 3
    • C2 and 4
    • D3 and 4

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3

    Addresses 2 and 3 match exactly. Addresses 1 and 4 have “Dr” without a full stop, and 1 also has no space before the comma.

  12. Q12.Find the group of letters that best completes the analogy. Use alphabetical positions and reverse position logic where necessary. DINS : WRMH :: EKPT : ?

    • AVJOG
    • BVJNF
    • CVPKG
    • DVJOF

    Answer: (C) VPKG

    Each letter is replaced by its reverse-alphabet partner (position 27 − n): D↔W, I↔R, N↔M, S↔H. For EKPT: E↔V, K↔P, P↔K, T↔G, giving VPKG.

  13. Q13.In the following question, a pair of letters is given, followed by its corresponding product of alphabetical positions (A = 1, B = 2, ..., Z = 26). A second pair of letters is given without its product. Identify the correct product for the second pair that maintains the same relationship as the first. AxE : 1×5 :: DxK : ?

    • A3×9
    • B4×11
    • C5×10
    • D4×12

    Answer: (B) 4×11

    The pair is written as the product of its positions: A×E = 1×5. D×K = 4×11.

  14. Q14.There are 40 students in a line. Rahul is 13th from the left and Kunal is 17th from the right. How many students are there between them?

    • A7
    • B9
    • C10
    • D12

    Answer: (C) 10

    Kunal is 17th from the right, i.e. 40 − 17 + 1 = 24th from the left. Between the 13th and the 24th there are 24 − 13 − 1 = 10 students.

  15. Q15.In each of the following questions, a specific rearrangement pattern has been applied to the first word to form the second. Apply the same rearrangement to the third word and choose the correct answer from the given alternatives. PRINTING : RPNIITGN :: PROTOCOL : ?

    • ARPTOCOOL
    • BRPOTCOLO
    • CPRTOOCOL
    • DRPTOCOLO

    Answer: (D) RPTOCOLO

    PRINTING → RPNIITGN swaps each pair of letters: PR→RP, IN→NI, TI→IT, NG→GN. PROTOCOL: PR→RP, OT→TO, OC→CO, OL→LO, giving RPTOCOLO.

  16. Q16.In each of the following questions, a word is transformed into another using a specific alphabetic pattern (such as letter shifting or substitution). Apply the same transformation to the third word to determine the correct answer from the given options. HOUSE : GNTRD :: ? : KHFGS

    • ASIGHT
    • BFIGHT
    • CMIGHT
    • DLIGHT

    Answer: (D) LIGHT

    HOUSE → GNTRD moves each letter back 1. Reversing this, KHFGS moves forward 1 to give LIGHT.

  17. Q17.A said to B, “Your father’s wife’s son is my brother.” How is B related to A?

    • ACousin
    • BSibling
    • CUncle
    • DNephew

    Answer: (B) Sibling

    B's father's wife is B's mother, and her son is B's brother, who is also A's brother. So A and B are siblings.

  18. Q18.Find the missing number: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?, 36

    • A20
    • B25
    • C30
    • D27

    Answer: (B) 25

    The squares 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36. The missing number is 25.

  19. Q19.Identify the number which does not satisfy: Sum of digits is a divisor of the number

    • A21
    • B30
    • C36
    • D39

    Answer: (D) 39

    For 39 the digit sum is 12, and 39 is not divisible by 12. For 21 (3), 30 (3) and 36 (9) the digit sum divides the number.

  20. Q20.In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

    • AA1 : D5 : G9
    • BB2 : E6 : H10
    • CC3 : F7 : I11
    • DD4 : G8 : K13

    Answer: (D) D4 : G8 : K13

    In each group the letters move +3 and the numbers +4: A1 : D5 : G9, B2 : E6 : H10, C3 : F7 : I11. In D4 : G8 : K13, G→K is +4 and 8→13 is +5, so it is the odd one.

  21. Q21.In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

    • AA1@ : D4# : G7$
    • BB2% : E5^ : H8&
    • CC3* : F6( : I9)
    • DD4_ : G8@ : K13$

    Answer: (D) D4_ : G8@ : K13$

    Elsewhere the letter matches its number and both move +3 (A1, D4, G7), with three different symbols. D4_ : G8@ : K13$ breaks this (G is 7, not 8, and K13 is +5).

  22. Q22.A said to B: “The woman I met yesterday at the park was the only daughter of the father of your brother.” How is the woman related to B?

    • ASister
    • BCousin
    • CMother
    • DAunt

    Answer: (A) Sister

    The father of B's brother is B's father, and his only daughter is B's sister.

  23. Q23.A man says, “My son’s mother is the only daughter of your father.” How is the man related to the person being spoken to?

    • ABrother
    • BHusband
    • CSon-in-law
    • DSon

    Answer: (B) Husband

    The only daughter of the listener's father is the listener's sister (or the listener herself). She is the mother of the man's son, so the man is her husband.

  24. Q24.Introducing a man, Shruti said, “He is the husband of the granddaughter of the only son of my grandfather.” How is the man related to Shruti?

    • ASon-in-law
    • BHusband
    • CSon
    • DCousin

    Answer: (A) Son-in-law

    The only son of Shruti's grandfather is Shruti's father. His granddaughter is Shruti's daughter, and her husband is Shruti's son-in-law.

  25. Q25.If + = ×, − = +, × = ÷; then 6 + 3 − 2 × 1 = ?

    • A20
    • B21
    • C19
    • D24

    Answer: (A) 20

    After replacing the signs: 6 × 3 + 2 ÷ 1 = 18 + 2 = 20.

General Awareness (Q26–50)

  1. Q26.Read the below statement: 1. Solicitor General of India is appointed by the president of India. 2. A candidate contesting for the post of the President of India is required to make a security deposit of ₹15,000. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • AOnly statement 1
    • BOnly statement 2
    • CBoth statements 1 and 2
    • DNeither statement 1 nor 2

    Answer: (B) Only statement 2

    The Solicitor General is a statutory law officer appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. Only the Attorney General is appointed by the President (Article 76), so 1 is false. A presidential candidate must deposit ₹15,000, so 2 is true.

  2. Q27.Based on the given statements which option is correct: Statement I: Mathura art produced images for both Indian and non-Indian patrons. Statement II: Mathura art ignored nature-based themes in its sculptures.

    • AStatement I and II both are Correct.
    • BOnly statement I is correct
    • COnly Statement II is correct
    • DNeither I nor II

    Answer: (B) Only statement I is correct

    The Mathura school made Buddhist, Jain and Brahmanical images, and under the Kushanas it served both Indian and foreign patrons (I is true). It often used nature motifs such as trees, yakshis and animals (II is false).

  3. Q28.Which of the following statements about Hola Mohalla festival of Punjab is correct?

    • AIt is celebrated mainly by women through crafts and songs in Patiala.
    • BIt showcases martial arts, langars, and Nihang mock battles at Anandpur Sahib.
    • CIt is a harvest festival observed in Punjab just before Diwali.
    • DHola Mohalla is celebrated on the same day as Holi.

    Answer: (B) It showcases martial arts, langars, and Nihang mock battles at Anandpur Sahib.

    Hola Mohalla, begun by Guru Gobind Singh, is held at Anandpur Sahib the day after Holi. It features martial displays, mock battles by Nihangs and langars.

  4. Q29.Mārgi Saṅgīta in ancient Indian music was rooted in:

    • AFolk music
    • BVedic traditions
    • CCourtly entertainment
    • DWestern-influence

    Answer: (B) Vedic traditions

    Margi sangita was the “classical” music rooted in Vedic chant and sacred ritual, as opposed to desi (regional) music.

  5. Q30.In freestyle wrestling, which of the following actions can result in a technical point for the wrestler?

    • ARunning out of the mat deliberately
    • BHolding the opponent’s singlet
    • CPerforming a successful takedown
    • DUsing an illegal headlock

    Answer: (C) Performing a successful takedown

    In freestyle wrestling a successful takedown earns technical points. Deliberately running out of the mat, grabbing the singlet and illegal holds are fouls.

  6. Q31.Vijender Singh defeated which player in the quarter-finals to secure India’s first Olympic boxing medal?

    • AEmilio Correa
    • BCarlos Góngora
    • CMisha Aloyan
    • DVasyl Lomachenko

    Answer: (B) Carlos Góngora

    At Beijing 2008, Vijender Singh beat Ecuador's Carlos Góngora in the 75 kg quarter-final, which assured India's first Olympic boxing medal (bronze).

  7. Q32.Which mechanism did India operationalize in 2024 to strengthen regional financial resilience within SAARC?

    • ASAARC Development Fund capital increase
    • BSAARC Currency Swap Framework (2024–27)
    • CSAARC Trade Insurance Scheme
    • DSAARC Sovereign Credit Pool

    Answer: (B) SAARC Currency Swap Framework (2024–27)

    In June 2024 the RBI, with Government approval, put in place the SAARC Currency Swap Framework for 2024-27, offering swap support to SAARC central banks.

  8. Q33.Fill in the blanks: Established in 1961 within the former Palace of the Maharaja of Patiala, the National Institute of Sports was later renamed as the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports (NSNIS) on _______.

    • A15th August 1975
    • B26th January 1972
    • C23rd January 1973
    • D7th May 1961

    Answer: (C) 23rd January 1973

    The National Institute of Sports (founded 7 May 1961 in Patiala's Moti Bagh palace) was renamed the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports on 23 January 1973.

  9. Q34.Consider the following statements about “The Vine of Desire” by Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni: 1) Explores cultural conflicts in an Indian immigrant family across generations. 2) A historical account of India’s freedom struggle and politics. 3) A science fiction tale about identity and technology in future India. Which of the following is correct?

    • AOnly statement 1 is correct
    • BOnly statement 2 is correct
    • CStatements 2 and 3 both are correct
    • D1, 2 and 3 all are correct

    Answer: (A) Only statement 1 is correct

    The Vine of Desire follows Anju and Sudha, Indian women in America, and the cultural strains of immigrant family life. It is neither a freedom-struggle history nor science fiction, so only statement 1 fits.

  10. Q35.Which statements accurately describe water bodies in the Indian Desert? 1. Streams are perennial and flow year-round. 2. Most streams disappear into the sand.

    • AOnly 1
    • BOnly 2
    • C1 and 2 both are correct
    • DNeither 1 nor 2 are correct

    Answer: (B) Only 2

    Streams in the Thar Desert are seasonal and most vanish into the sand (the Luni is the main exception). Only statement 2 is correct.

  11. Q36.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Demographic statistics like birth and death rates rely on accurate reporting by households. Reason (R): Birth and death registration is mandatory and always accurately followed in all parts of India.

    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
    • CA is true, but R is false
    • DA is false, but R is true

    Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false

    Birth and death rates depend on accurate reporting, so A is true. Registration is not always accurately followed everywhere in India, so R is false.

  12. Q37.Which Padma awardees and fields is/are correctly paired? 1. Gokul Chandra Das – Folk Music 2. Dinesh Saini – Environment 3. Farooq Ahmad Mir – Literature 4. Geeta Devi – Agriculture

    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • C3 only
    • D4 only

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Gokul Chandra Das, a dhak (folk drum) player from West Bengal, received the Padma Shri 2025 in Art: folk music fits. Farooq Ahmad Mir was awarded in Art (Kashmiri shawl weaving), not Literature, and the other two pairings do not match any 2025 awardee.

  13. Q38.Which of the following accurately reflects the critical technological outcome of ISRO’s RLV-LEX3 mission conducted on June 23, 2024?

    • AIn-flight fuel transfer at hypersonic speeds
    • BAutonomous high-speed landing under tough cross-range & wind
    • CLaunch abort test for crewed reusable launchers
    • DOrbital deployment via dual-mode scramjet propulsion

    Answer: (B) Autonomous high-speed landing under tough cross-range & wind

    RLV-LEX-03 (23 June 2024, Chitradurga) showed autonomous landing of the Pushpak winged vehicle from a harder release point, with more cross-range and stronger winds, at landing speeds above 320 km/h.

  14. Q39.The term “pleiotropy” refers to:

    • AOne gene affects multiple traits
    • BMultiple genes affect one trait
    • CGene mutation in one allele
    • DGene duplication

    Answer: (A) One gene affects multiple traits

    Pleiotropy is when one gene affects several traits.

  15. Q40.How are Money Bills handled in both Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures with bicameralism under the Constitution?

    • ARajya Sabha must approve Money Bills within 14 days
    • BIn States, the Legislative Council can amend a Money Bill within 14 days
    • CBoth Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils have equal powers on Money Bills
    • DRajya Sabha and Legislative Councils can only make recommendations within 14 days

    Answer: (D) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils can only make recommendations within 14 days

    A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (or the Legislative Assembly). The Rajya Sabha or Legislative Council can only make recommendations within 14 days, which the lower House may accept or reject.

  16. Q41.It is difficult to start motion with a heavy box and also difficult to stop it once it's moving. This best exemplifies:

    • AThe concept of power
    • BConservation of energy
    • CProperty of inertia
    • DAction-reaction principle

    Answer: (C) Property of inertia

    A heavy body resists starting and resists stopping because of inertia. The greater the mass, the greater the inertia.

  17. Q42.The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita (BNS), 2023, consolidates and amends provisions related to which branch of law?

    • ACivil Procedure Law
    • BCriminal Substantive Law
    • CEvidence Law
    • DContract Law

    Answer: (B) Criminal Substantive Law

    The Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita, 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code. It is substantive criminal law.

  18. Q43.Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to reduce dependency on fossil fuels. Reason (R): It is implemented by MoEFCC.

    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    • CA is true, but R is false
    • DA is false, but R is true

    Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false

    The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to cut dependence on fossil fuels, so A is true. It is run by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, not MoEFCC, so R is false.

  19. Q44.Fill in the Blank: Koli dance is traditionally performed by the _____ community.

    • AFisherfolk
    • BFarmers
    • CShepherds
    • DWeavers

    Answer: (A) Fisherfolk

    The Koli dance of Maharashtra belongs to the Koli fishing community and imitates rowing and casting nets.

  20. Q45.The Global Energy Transition Index 2025 is released by which international organization?

    • AIRENA
    • BIEA
    • CWorld Economic Forum
    • DUNDP

    Answer: (C) World Economic Forum

    The Energy Transition Index is released by the World Economic Forum in its Fostering Effective Energy Transition report.

  21. Q46.Which of the following is correctly classified as a consumer goods industry?

    • AIron and steel
    • BAluminium smelting
    • CToothpaste
    • DCopper smelting

    Answer: (C) Toothpaste

    Toothpaste is a consumer good for direct use. Iron and steel, aluminium and copper smelting are basic or heavy industries.

  22. Q47.Article 246A gives power to both Parliament and State to make laws on _____.

    • AProperty Rights
    • BTaxation of Goods and Services
    • CEmergency Provisions
    • DCriminal Law

    Answer: (B) Taxation of Goods and Services

    Article 246A (101st Amendment, 2016) lets both Parliament and the State Legislatures make laws on GST, the tax on goods and services.

  23. Q48.Which newly designated Ramsar Site is recognized for hosting the largest population of Sarus Cranes in India?

    • ASarsai Nawar Wetland, UP
    • BKeoladeo National Park, Rajasthan
    • CNalsarovar Bird Sanctuary, Gujarat
    • DHarike Wetland, Punjab

    Answer: (A) Sarsai Nawar Wetland, UP

    Sarsai Nawar Wetland in Etawah district, UP, is a Ramsar site known for a large population of the Sarus crane. Note: it was designated in 2019, so “newly designated” is loose.

  24. Q49.Oxygen concentration in Earth’s atmosphere is roughly?

    • A18%
    • B21%
    • C24%
    • D28%

    Answer: (B) 21%

    Dry air is about 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen.

  25. Q50.Consider the following statements: 1. Supreme Court can transfer cases from one High Court to another. 2. Article 139A was introduced by the 42nd Amendment. Which of the above is/are correct?

    • AOnly 1
    • BOnly 2
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Article 139A lets the Supreme Court transfer cases between High Courts (1 is true). It was added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 (2 is true).

Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–75)

  1. Q51.Find the product: 1.2 × 2 2/5 × 3/4

    • A2.4
    • B2.5
    • C2.16
    • D2.1

    Answer: (C) 2.16

    1.2 × 2.4 × 0.75 = 2.16.

  2. Q52.What is the value of (0.1×0.1×0.1+0.03×0.03×0.03)/(0.3×0.3×0.3+0.09×0.09×0.09).

    • A0.027
    • B0.009
    • C0.729
    • D0.037

    Answer: (D) 0.037

    Take a = 0.1, b = 0.03. The numerator is a³ + b³, and the denominator is (3a)³ + (3b)³ = 27(a³ + b³). The value is 1/27 ≈ 0.037.

  3. Q53.The number of students in two sections A and B having different heights is shown in the table given below: Height (in metres) | Section A | Section B 1.55 | 5 | 4 1.60 | 9 | 8 1.62 | 11 | 13 1.65 | 14 | 10 1.68 | 6 | 7 1.71 | 7 | 5 1.75 | 4 | 3 What is the ratio of the total number of students in Section A whose height is less than 1.65 metres to the total number of students in Section B whose height is less than 1.65 metres?

    • A25:26
    • B1:1
    • C26:25
    • D25:25

    Answer: (B) 1:1

    Below 1.65 m: Section A = 5 + 9 + 11 = 25, Section B = 4 + 8 + 13 = 25, so the ratio is 1 : 1. Note: option D (25 : 25) is the same ratio unsimplified, so two options are equal in value. SSC keyed 1 : 1, its lowest-terms form, and the answer is kept as keyed.

  4. Q54.A, B, and C invest ₹40,000, ₹60,000, and ₹80,000 respectively for 1 year. What is B’s share in a ₹55,000 profit?

    • A₹18,333.33
    • B₹20,333.33
    • C₹21,333.33
    • D₹22,333.33

    Answer: (A) ₹18,333.33

    Ratio 40 : 60 : 80 = 2 : 3 : 4. B's share = 3/9 × 55,000 = ₹18,333.33.

  5. Q55.A and B invest ₹60,000 and ₹90,000 respectively, in a business. After one year, the profit is distributed, including simple interest at 10% per annum on the capital. Total profit, including interest, is ₹25,000. What is A’s share?

    • A₹7,000
    • B₹10,500
    • C₹10,000
    • D₹8,500

    Answer: (C) ₹10,000

    Interest at 10%: A 6,000, B 9,000, together 15,000. The remaining 10,000 is split 60 : 90 = 2 : 3, so A gets 4,000 more. A's total = ₹10,000.

  6. Q56.Table – Units Sold of 3 Products Product | Jan | Feb | Mar A | 100 | 120 | 110 B | 90 | 85 | 95 C | 150 | 160 | 155 Q: Which product had the highest average units sold?

    • AA & C both
    • BB
    • CA
    • DC

    Answer: (D) C

    Averages: A = 110, B = 90, C = 155. C sold the most on average.

  7. Q57.Three numbers are such that when the average of any two of them is added to the third, the results obtained are 180, 168, and 150, respectively. What is the average of the original three numbers?

    • A83
    • B84
    • C85
    • D86

    Answer: (A) 83

    If the sum is S, then “average of two + third” for third number c is (S − c)/2 + c = (S + c)/2 = 180, so S + c = 360. Likewise S + b = 336 and S + a = 300. Adding gives 4S = 996, so S = 249 and the average is 83.

  8. Q58.A school organized a field trip for 100 students and 10 chaperones. Each student was given a snack pack containing items equal to 15% of the total number of students. Each chaperone received a snack pack with items equal to 25% of the total number of students. How many snack items were distributed in total?

    • A1750
    • B2000
    • C2250
    • D2500

    Answer: (A) 1750

    Students: 100 × 15 (15% of 100) = 1500. Chaperones: 10 × 25 (25% of 100) = 250. Total 1750.

  9. Q59.Find the compound interest on ₹10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years 6 months, compounded annually.

    • A₹2,000
    • B₹2,705
    • C₹2,700
    • D₹2,500

    Answer: (B) ₹2,705

    Compounded annually for 2½ years: 10,000 × 1.1 × 1.1 × 1.05 = 12,705. CI = ₹2,705.

  10. Q60.A certain amount invested at compound interest of 12% per annum, compounded annually, amounts to ₹3,136 in 2 years. What is 140% of the amount invested?

    • A₹3,600
    • B₹3,800
    • C₹3,500
    • D₹3,000

    Answer: (C) ₹3,500

    P × 1.12² = 3136, so P = 3136/1.2544 = 2500. 140% of 2500 = ₹3,500.

  11. Q61.One type of pulses is sold for ₹72 per kg at a 20% profit. Another type is sold for ₹60 per kg at a 25% profit. If these two varieties are mixed in the ratio of 2:1 (first variety to second variety) and the mixture is sold at ₹70 per kg, what is the overall profit or loss percentage?

    • AProfit of 50%
    • BLoss of 25%
    • CProfit of 25%
    • DLoss of 50%

    Answer: (C) Profit of 25%

    CPs: 72/1.2 = 60 and 60/1.25 = 48. Mixed 2 : 1: CP = (120 + 48)/3 = 56. Selling at 70 gives a profit of 14/56 = 25%.

  12. Q62.A clothing store sold three dresses, D1, D2, and D3, whose selling prices were in the ratio 5:6:7. They made a profit of 20% on D1, a loss of 10% on D2, and a profit of 30% on D3. What was their approximate total profit or loss percentage for the entire sale?

    • Aprofit of 12.25%
    • Bloss of 10.98%
    • Cprofit of 10.98%
    • Dloss of 12.25%

    Answer: (C) profit of 10.98%

    Take SPs as 5, 6, 7. CPs = 5/1.2 = 4.167, 6/0.9 = 6.667 and 7/1.3 = 5.385, total 16.218. SP = 18, so there is a profit of 1.782/16.218 ≈ 10.98%. Note: SSC's official key marks (B) “loss of 10.98%”. The figure is right but the direction is wrong: it is a profit, so (C) is marked correct here.

  13. Q63.A wholesaler marks up the price of a microwave oven by 60% above its cost price. He gives a 15% trade discount to a retailer. The retailer, in turn, marks up the price by 25% above his purchase price and offers a 10% festival discount to the customer. If the customer finally pays ₹14,490 for the microwave, what is the original approximate cost price of the oven to the wholesaler?

    • A₹9,471
    • B₹9,500
    • C₹10,000
    • D₹10,500

    Answer: (A) ₹9,471

    Retailer's cost = 1.6C × 0.85 = 1.36C. Customer price = 1.36C × 1.25 × 0.9 = 1.53C = 14,490, so C ≈ ₹9,471.

  14. Q64.A 60-litres solution of alcohol and water has 20% water. How many litres of alcohol must be added to the solution to make the water content 15%?

    • A10 litres
    • B20 litres
    • C30 litres
    • D40 litres

    Answer: (B) 20 litres

    Water = 12 L. For water to be 15%, the total must be 12/0.15 = 80 L, so 20 L of alcohol is added.

  15. Q65.A can do a work in 8 days and B in 12 days. They work together for 3 days. What part of the work is left?

    • A1/4
    • B5/8
    • C3/8
    • D7/24

    Answer: (C) 3/8

    In 3 days together they do 3(1/8 + 1/12) = 3 × 5/24 = 5/8. Work left = 3/8.

  16. Q66.A grocer mixes 40 kg of lentils costing ₹65 per kg with a certain quantity of lentils costing ₹80 per kg. If he sells the mixture at ₹75 per kg, making a 10% profit, what quantity of the second type of lentils did he mix?

    • A25.98 kg
    • B10.77 kg
    • C35 kg
    • D40 kg

    Answer: (B) 10.77 kg

    CP of the mixture = 75/1.1 = 68.18. By alligation, (68.18 − 65) : (80 − 68.18) = second : first, so second = 40 × 3.18/11.82 ≈ 10.77 kg.

  17. Q67.A and B can complete a task together in 12 days, while B and C can finish it in 16 days. After A works on it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C takes the remaining 13 days to finish the work. How many days would it take for C to complete the work alone?

    • A24 days
    • B16 days
    • C20 days
    • D18 days

    Answer: (A) 24 days

    5A + 7B + 13C = 1 can be written as 5(A + B) + 2(B + C) + 11C = 5/12 + 1/8 + 11C = 1. So 11C = 11/24 and C = 1/24: 24 days.

  18. Q68.A cyclist travels from City A to City B at an average speed of 20 km/h and takes 4 hours. If they want to complete the same journey in 2.5 hours, by what amount (in km/h) should they increase their average speed?

    • A12 km/h
    • B10 km/h
    • C15 km/h
    • D8 km/h

    Answer: (A) 12 km/h

    Distance = 20 × 4 = 80 km. In 2.5 h the speed must be 32 km/h, an increase of 12 km/h.

  19. Q69.A train leaves Station A at 6:00 AM and travels towards Station B at a constant speed of 60 km/h. Another train leaves Station B at 8:00 AM and travels towards Station A at a constant speed of 90 km/h. The distance between the two stations is 540 km. At what time will the two trains meet?

    • A9:48 AM
    • B10:48 AM
    • C11:45 AM
    • D12:45 PM

    Answer: (B) 10:48 AM

    By 8:00 AM the first train has gone 120 km, leaving 420 km. Closing speed 150 km/h, so 2.8 h = 2 h 48 min. They meet at 10:48 AM.

  20. Q70.A circular garden having a diameter of 10 m is surrounded by a concrete path that is 1 m wide. Calculate the percentage increase in area resulting from the addition of the path.

    • A18%
    • B20%
    • C44%
    • D54%

    Answer: (C) 44%

    Radius goes from 5 m to 6 m. Area increase = (36 − 25)/25 = 44%.

  21. Q71.A sector of a circle having a radius 14 cm has area 154 cm². Find the angle of the sector.

    • A90°
    • B120°
    • C150°
    • D180°

    Answer: (A) 90°

    Area = (θ/360) × (22/7) × 14² = (θ/360) × 616 = 154, so θ = 90°.

  22. Q72.A circular signboard has a radius of 2 m. If painting costs ₹60 per m² and 10% of the board is left unpainted, what is the total painting cost?

    • A₹658.2
    • B₹678.6
    • C₹630.4
    • D₹681.9

    Answer: (B) ₹678.6

    Area = π × 2² ≈ 12.566 m². Painted 90% = 11.31 m². Cost = 11.31 × 60 ≈ ₹678.6.

  23. Q73.Find y-intercept of 4x + 5y = 20.

    • A3
    • B4
    • C5
    • D6

    Answer: (B) 4

    At x = 0, 5y = 20 and y = 4.

  24. Q74.Given, x + 1/x = 4 find the value of x³ + 1/x³.

    • A55
    • B57
    • C52
    • D50

    Answer: (C) 52

    x³ + 1/x³ = (x + 1/x)³ − 3(x + 1/x) = 64 − 12 = 52.

  25. Q75.0.1 + 0.01 + 0.001 = ?

    • A0.123
    • B0.111
    • C0.121
    • D0.211

    Answer: (B) 0.111

    0.1 + 0.01 + 0.001 = 0.111.

English Comprehension (Q76–100)

  1. Q76.Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: JUVENILE

    • AAdult
    • BWise
    • CChildish
    • DMature

    Answer: (C) Childish

    Juvenile means young or childish. Adult, wise and mature are opposites.

  2. Q77.Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Bury the hatchet

    • ATo reconcile after a conflict
    • BTo deepen hostility
    • CTo run away
    • DTo forget someone's name

    Answer: (A) To reconcile after a conflict

    “Bury the hatchet” means to make peace after a quarrel.

  3. Q78.Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Extirpate

    • AExterminate
    • BEstablish
    • CUproot
    • DEradicate

    Answer: (B) Establish

    Extirpate means to root out completely. Its opposite is establish.

  4. Q79.Identify the misspelt word

    • AEmbarrassment
    • BIndispensible
    • CCamouflage
    • DRendezvous

    Answer: (B) Indispensible

    The correct spelling is “Indispensable”.

  5. Q80.Spot the correct spelling of early film base compound.

    • ANitrocelulose
    • BNitrocellulose
    • CNitracellulose
    • DNitrocellullose

    Answer: (B) Nitrocellulose

    Nitrocellulose, used for early film stock, is the correct spelling.

  6. Q81.Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who eats excessively or greedily'.

    • AGlutton
    • BGourmet
    • CEpicure
    • DSybarite

    Answer: (A) Glutton

    A glutton eats excessively or greedily. A gourmet or epicure enjoys fine food, and a sybarite loves luxury.

  7. Q82.Select the correct option: The finance minister’s statement was laden with caveats, none of ___ were explained.

    • Athat
    • Bthem
    • Cwhich
    • Dwhom

    Answer: (C) which

    After “none of” the relative pronoun for things is “which”: “none of which were explained”.

  8. Q83.Select the correct option: The philosopher’s stance was diametrically ___ to the prevailing orthodoxy.

    • Aadverse
    • Baverse
    • Cconverse
    • Dopposed

    Answer: (D) opposed

    “Diametrically opposed to” is the standard phrase for complete opposition.

  9. Q84.Select the correct option: No sooner ___ the findings published than critics began questioning their legitimacy.

    • Awas
    • Bhad
    • Cwere
    • Dhave

    Answer: (C) were

    After “No sooner” the auxiliary comes before the subject. The sentence needs a passive, “No sooner were the findings published than…” (“had the findings been published” would also work, but “been” is not in the sentence). Note: SSC's official key marks (B) “had”, which gives the ungrammatical “had the findings published”. Option (C) “were” is marked correct here.

  10. Q85.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The policy aims to neither penalise first-time offenders (1)/ nor those who may have violated norms (2)/ due to systemic ambiguity (3)/ rather than deliberate intent. (4)

    • A(1)
    • B(2)
    • C(3)
    • D(4)

    Answer: (A) (1)

    “Neither … nor” must sit just before the parallel items: “aims to penalise neither first-time offenders nor those who…”. Part (1) places “neither” wrongly.

  11. Q86.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: It was not merely the fragmentation of administrative jurisdictions across sectors (1)/ that disrupted cohesive governance, but the inertia embedded in overlapping regulatory mandates (2)/ which, though designed to safeguard institutional autonomy, (3)/ ends up paralyzing inter-departmental responsiveness altogether. (4)

    • A(1)
    • B(2)
    • C(3)
    • D(4)

    Answer: (D) (4)

    “Which” refers to the plural “overlapping regulatory mandates”, designed to safeguard autonomy, so the verb should be “end up”, not “ends up”.

  12. Q87.Change the following from active to passive: The committee had been debating complex amendments when the bell rang.

    • AComplex amendments had had been been debated by the committee when the bell rang.
    • BComplex amendments had been being debated by the committee when the bell rang.
    • CComplex amendments had be being debated by the committee when the bell rang.
    • DComplex amendments had debated by the committee when the bell rang.

    Answer: (B) Complex amendments had been being debated by the committee when the bell rang.

    Past perfect continuous active (had been debating) becomes the passive “had been being debated”.

  13. Q88.Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The knight raised his ‘pauldron’ before mounting. (Highlighted word shown in quotes.)

    • AThe blacksmith polished the steel pauldron until it gleamed.
    • BThe art historian admired the engraved pauldron of the effigy.
    • CThe biology student dissected the pauldron of the sea slug.
    • DThe museum displayed a 15th-century Italian pauldron.

    Answer: (C) The biology student dissected the pauldron of the sea slug.

    SSC keyed C. “Pauldron” means only shoulder armour, so no option has a true homonym. Option C (“pauldron of the sea slug”) is the only sentence where it cannot mean armour, which is how the key reads it. Arguable question. The answer is kept as SSC keyed it.

  14. Q89.Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: A letter is written to the editor by the citizen every week.

    • AThe editor writes a letter to the citizen every week.
    • BThe citizen writes a letter to the editor every week.
    • CThe editor wrote a letter every week.
    • DThe citizen has been writing letters to the editor weekly.

    Answer: (B) The citizen writes a letter to the editor every week.

    Present passive “is written … by the citizen” becomes the active “The citizen writes a letter to the editor every week.”

  15. Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: India’s tryst with the Olympic Games began in 1900, when Norman Pritchard, a British-Indian athlete, clinched two silver medals in athletics. However, it wasn’t until the 1928 Amsterdam Olympics that India emerged as a formidable force in hockey, winning its first team gold. What followed was a golden era, where the Indian men’s hockey team dominated the Olympic arena with eight gold medals between 1928 and 1980—an unmatched legacy. Despite this early excellence, India’s Olympic journey has been riddled with inconsistencies. Post-1980, a conspicuous medal drought gripped the nation, exposing systemic inefficiencies: lack of infrastructure, inadequate training, and minimal grassroots scouting. Athletes often relied more on personal resilience than institutional support to achieve global recognition. The 21st century, however, has ushered in a phase of cautious optimism. With the establishment of bodies like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and increased corporate sponsorship, Indian athletes now enjoy improved access to international-level coaching, nutrition, and psychological training. The medal tallies, though modest, have seen an upward trend—symbolized by Neeraj Chopra’s historic gold in javelin at Tokyo 2020. What’s most heartening is the diversification of sports. No longer confined to hockey and wrestling, India is now making strides in disciplines like badminton, shooting, boxing, and athletics. Equally noteworthy is the rising representation and success of Indian women athletes, who have frequently been the torchbearers in recent Olympic outings. Yet, challenges remain. The transition from potential to podium demands long-term investment, scientific sports management, and societal encouragement that transcends cricket-centric fandom. While India’s Olympic identity is still evolving, the collective ambition is clearer than ever: to transform from a participant nation into a sporting powerhouse.

    Q90.When did India first win an Olympic team gold medal?

    • A1900 Paris
    • B1936 Berlin
    • C1928 Amsterdam
    • D1948 London

    Answer: (C) 1928 Amsterdam

    The passage says that at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympics India won “its first team gold” in hockey.

  16. Q91.What major issue plagued India’s Olympic performance post-1980?

    • ALimited fan interest
    • BOver-dependence on cricket
    • CSystemic inefficiencies in sports
    • DLack of global tournaments

    Answer: (C) Systemic inefficiencies in sports

    After 1980 the drought exposed “systemic inefficiencies: lack of infrastructure, inadequate training, and minimal grassroots scouting”.

  17. Q92.Which initiative is mentioned as a game-changer in recent Olympic preparation?

    • AMission Khel Udaan
    • BOlympic Gold Hunt
    • CFit India Movement
    • DTarget Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)

    Answer: (D) Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)

    The passage names the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) as the body that improved athletes' access to coaching and support.

  18. Q93.What recent trend is encouraging in India's Olympic profile?

    • AReduced investment in cricket
    • BDomination in hockey again
    • CEmergence of multiple sports and women athletes
    • DDecline of Western dominance

    Answer: (C) Emergence of multiple sports and women athletes

    The heartening trend is the “diversification of sports” and the “rising representation and success of Indian women athletes”.

  19. Q94.What is implied about India’s Olympic aspirations?

    • AThey rely entirely on foreign coaching
    • BThey aim for consistent participation
    • CThey are growing but need sustained reforms
    • DThey are limited to traditional sports

    Answer: (C) They are growing but need sustained reforms

    The passage says India's Olympic identity is “still evolving” and that going from potential to podium needs long-term investment: growing, but in need of sustained reforms.

  20. Q95.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: Had I known about the traffic, I ‘will leave early’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)

    • Awould have left earlier
    • Bwould leave early
    • Chad left earlier
    • Dwould left earlier

    Answer: (A) would have left earlier

    A third conditional (“Had I known…”) takes “would have + past participle” in the main clause: “I would have left earlier”.

  21. Q96.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: It is high time you ‘must change your habits’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)

    • Achanged your habits
    • Bmust have changed your habits
    • Cchange your habit
    • Dwill change the habit

    Answer: (A) changed your habits

    “It is high time” is followed by the past tense: “It is high time you changed your habits.”

  22. Q97.A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said, “Do it right now.”

    • AHe said do it immediately.
    • BHe told to do it now.
    • CHe told me to do it at once.
    • DHe told me do it right now.

    Answer: (C) He told me to do it at once.

    An order is reported with “told + object + to-infinitive”, and “right now” becomes “at once”: “He told me to do it at once.”

  23. Q98.A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The professor remarked that students needed to submit their papers before Friday.

    • A“Students need to submit their papers before Friday,” the professor remarked.
    • B“Students needed to submit their papers before Friday,” said the professor.
    • C“Submit your papers before Friday,” the professor instructed.
    • D“You were to submit your papers before Friday,” said the professor.

    Answer: (A) “Students need to submit their papers before Friday,” the professor remarked.

    In direct speech the tense shifts back: “needed” becomes “need”. “Students need to submit their papers before Friday,” the professor remarked.

  24. Q99.Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. This makes them ideal for tasks like image recognition, natural language processing, and medical diagnostics. 2. Machine learning is a subset of artificial intelligence that focuses on the creation of algorithms that can learn from data without explicit programming. 3. The algorithm improves its performance by analyzing vast amounts of input data and identifying underlying patterns. 4. Instead of being given a set of rules, a machine learning model is trained on examples.

    • A2, 4, 3, 1
    • B4, 3, 2, 1
    • C3, 4, 2, 1
    • D2, 3, 4, 1

    Answer: (A) 2, 4, 3, 1

    Sentence 2 defines machine learning, 4 says it learns from examples, 3 says it improves by finding patterns and 1 gives the resulting uses: 2, 4, 3, 1.

  25. Q100.Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. The primary purpose of this process is to ensure that the food we eat is safe and does not contain harmful bacteria or other contaminants. 2. Food processing is a series of methods used to transform raw ingredients into consumable products. 3. These methods can range from simple actions like cutting and grinding to more complex procedures such as pasteurization and fermentation. 4. Furthermore, it also helps to preserve food, extend its shelf life, and enhance its nutritional value.

    • A2, 3, 1, 4
    • B1, 2, 3, 4
    • C3, 1, 4, 2
    • D4, 2, 1, 3

    Answer: (A) 2, 3, 1, 4

    Sentence 2 defines food processing, 3 gives its range of methods, 1 its main purpose (safety) and 4 its further benefits: 2, 3, 1, 4.

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