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Official PaperTier 1100 Questions · 60 Min

SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 12 September Shift 3 with Answers

Exam date
12 September 2025
Shift
Shift 34:00 PM
Source
SSC final answer key notice (09.01.2026)

SSC uploaded the final answer keys with candidates' response sheets for CGL 2025 Tier-I on 09.01.2026. Each paper here is one shift's response sheet, keyed to SSC's marked answers.

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q1–25)

  1. Official paper: SSC CGL 2025 Tier-I, held on 12 September 2025, Shift 3 (4:00 PM). Questions and the answer key are as printed on SSC’s candidate response sheet. Explanations are written by BookOfExams. Marking: +2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one.

    Q1.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. AEI, EIM, IMQ, MQU, ?

    • AQUY
    • BQKS
    • CLMX
    • DKJS

    Answer: (A) QUY

    Every letter moves 4 places forward: A→E→I→M→Q, E→I→M→Q→U, I→M→Q→U→Y. So MQU is followed by QUY.

  2. Q2.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. ACE, EIM, IOU, MUC, ?

    • AQSA
    • BUHG
    • CQAK
    • DCGD

    Answer: (C) QAK

    1st letters: A, E, I, M, Q (+4). 2nd letters: C, I, O, U, A (+6, wrapping after Z). 3rd letters: E, M, U, C, K (+8, wrapping). Next term: QAK.

  3. Q3.What comes next: 12, 30, 56, 90, 132, ?

    • A182
    • B250
    • C190
    • D293

    Answer: (A) 182

    Each term is n(n + 1) for odd n: 3×4 = 12, 5×6 = 30, 7×8 = 56, 9×10 = 90, 11×12 = 132, so next is 13×14 = 182. (Differences 18, 26, 34, 42, 50 rise by 8.)

  4. Q4.What will be come at the place of question mark? 1, 2, 5, 26, 677, ?

    • A458330
    • B456976
    • C453625
    • D458329

    Answer: (A) 458330

    Each term is the square of the previous term plus 1: 1² + 1 = 2, 2² + 1 = 5, 5² + 1 = 26, 26² + 1 = 677. Next: 677² + 1 = 458329 + 1 = 458330.

  5. Q5.Find the number that fits: 2, 5, 10, 17, ?

    • A26
    • B24
    • C21
    • D20

    Answer: (A) 26

    The terms are n² + 1: 1 + 1 = 2, 4 + 1 = 5, 9 + 1 = 10, 16 + 1 = 17, so next is 25 + 1 = 26. (Differences 3, 5, 7, 9.)

  6. Q6.Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: While the world is moving towards automation, it is essential to ensure that ethical frameworks evolve alongside technological advancements to prevent misuse. Assumptions: I. Automation can lead to ethical dilemmas. II. Ethical frameworks must be updated to keep pace with technological advancements. III. Automation will eventually replace human labor in all sectors.

    • AOnly I and II are implicit
    • BOnly I and III are implicit
    • CAll are implicit
    • DOnly I is implicit

    Answer: (A) Only I and II are implicit

    Saying ethics must keep pace to prevent misuse assumes automation can raise ethical problems (I) and that ethical frameworks need updating as technology advances (II). The statement says nothing about automation replacing human labour in every sector, so III is not implicit.

  7. Q7.The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word DEVELOP is arranged in alphabetical order?

    • ATwo
    • BFour
    • CThree
    • DFive

    Answer: (A) Two

    DEVELOP in alphabetical order is D E E L O P V. Comparing with D E V E L O P position by position, only D (1st) and E (2nd) stay in place. Answer: two.

  8. Q8.Identify the similar address: No. 45, First Avenue, Raja Annamalaipuram, Chennai, Tamil Nadu – 600028

    • ANo. 45, 1st Avenue, R.A. Puram, Chennai, TN 600028
    • BNo. 45, First Avenue, Raja Annamalaipuram, Chennai, Tamil Nadu – 600028
    • C45, First Avenue, Raja Annamalai Puram, Chennai, Tamil Nadu – 600028
    • DNo. 45/1, First Avenue, R. Annamalaipuram, Chennai, Tamil Nadu – 600028

    Answer: (B) No. 45, First Avenue, Raja Annamalaipuram, Chennai, Tamil Nadu – 600028

    Option 2 matches the given address character for character. The others change the wording: 1st Avenue / R.A. Puram / TN, a missing No. and a split Raja Annamalai Puram, or No. 45/1 and R. Annamalaipuram.

  9. Q9.From the given options, find the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word: INTELLIGENCE

    • ACANCEL
    • BNEGLECT
    • CGENTLE
    • DINCITE

    Answer: (A) CANCEL

    INTELLIGENCE has the letters I, N, T, E, L, G and C but no A, so CANCEL cannot be formed. NEGLECT, GENTLE and INCITE can be made from its letters.

  10. Q10.Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circle facing the center. C is second to the right of A. E is opposite C. F is to the immediate left of E. B is to the immediate right of A. G is to the immediate left of D. Who is sitting to the right of D?

    • AH
    • BU
    • CB
    • DF

    Answer: (D) F

    Place A anywhere. B is to A’s immediate right and C second to A’s right, so B sits between A and C. E sits opposite C, and F is to E’s immediate left. Of the three seats left, G must be to D’s immediate left, which fixes D, G and then H. The person to D’s right is F. (Option 2 reads U on SSC’s sheet; there is no person U.)

  11. Q11.In each of the following questions, a specific alphabetic coding pattern has been applied to the first word to form the second word. Identify the same coding logic and apply it to the third word to determine the correct answer from the given options. COUNTRY : FRXQWUB :: EXAMINE : ?

    • AHAPDLQH
    • BHADPLQH
    • CHAHPLDQ
    • DGBQDVWB

    Answer: (B) HADPLQH

    Each letter moves 3 places forward: C→F, O→R, U→X, N→Q, T→W, R→U, Y→B. EXAMINE becomes E→H, X→A, A→D, M→P, I→L, N→Q, E→H = HADPLQH.

  12. Q12.In each of the following questions, the second word is formed by rearranging the letters of the first word using a specific transformation, such as reversal or block shifting. Identify that transformation and apply it to the third word to choose the correct option. KITCAT : CATTIK :: PENTOP : ?

    • ATOPPEN
    • BTOPNEP
    • CPOPTEN
    • DPOPNET

    Answer: (B) TOPNEP

    KITCAT splits into KIT + CAT. The result CATTIK is the second half (CAT) followed by the first half reversed (TIK). For PENTOP: TOP + reversed PEN (NEP) = TOPNEP.

  13. Q13.In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

    • AZ1# : Y2@ : X3＄
    • BW4% : V5^ : U6&
    • CT7* : S8( : R9)
    • DQ10_ : P9@ : O8＄

    Answer: (D) Q10_ : P9@ : O8＄

    In the first three groups the letter goes back one step and the number goes up one step each time (Z1, Y2, X3; W4, V5, U6; T7, S8, R9), and the numbers run on from group to group. In Q10_ : P9@ : O8＄ the numbers fall (10, 9, 8), so it is the odd one.

  14. Q14.Instruction: In a certain coding system: ‘dream focus build skill’ is coded as ‘trq, xnz, hmd, clv’ ‘focus logic dream’ is coded as ‘trq, jkp, xnz’ ‘trust logic build dream’ is coded as ‘xnj, clv, jkp, trq’ Question: What is the code for ‘build skill logic trust’?

    • Aclv, hmd, jkp, xnj
    • Bclv, xnj, jkp, trq
    • Chmd, xnz, jkp, xnj
    • Dhmd, clv, xnj, xnz

    Answer: (A) clv, hmd, jkp, xnj

    dream appears in all three sentences and trq in all three codes, so dream = trq. focus is in sentences 1 and 2, so it is xnz (the other common code). logic is in 2 and 3, so it is jkp; build is in 1 and 3, so it is clv. Then skill = hmd and trust = xnj. build skill logic trust = clv, hmd, jkp, xnj.

  15. Q15.If x+2y=14 and x−y=5, find x.

    • A6
    • B4
    • C8
    • D10

    Answer: (C) 8

    Subtract the second equation from the first: (x + 2y) − (x − y) = 14 − 5, so 3y = 9 and y = 3. Then x = 5 + 3 = 8.

  16. Q16.If 6 ＄ 2 = 20 and 4 ＄ 3 = 19, then 5 ＄ 2 = ?

    • A18
    • B17
    • C16
    • D15

    Answer: (B) 17

    a ＄ b = ab + a + b: 6×2 + 6 + 2 = 20 and 4×3 + 4 + 3 = 19. So 5 ＄ 2 = 10 + 5 + 2 = 17.

  17. Q17.If ‘SAVE’ is coded as ‘★3#5’, and ‘VASE’ as ‘#3★5’, then what is the code for ‘EVAS’?

    • A5★3#
    • B★5#7
    • C★5#3
    • D5#3★

    Answer: (D) 5#3★

    From SAVE = ★3#5: S = ★, A = 3, V = #, E = 5 (VASE = #3★5 confirms it). EVAS = 5 # 3 ★ = 5#3★.

  18. Q18.If the ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their sum is 64, find the numbers

    • A24, 40
    • B20, 44
    • C18, 46
    • D16, 48

    Answer: (A) 24, 40

    Let the numbers be 3x and 5x. Then 8x = 64, so x = 8 and the numbers are 24 and 40.

  19. Q19.If 5 @ 3 = 28 and 4 @ 2 = 18, then what is 6 @ 4?

    • A40
    • B52
    • C64
    • D76

    Answer: (A) 40

    a @ b = a² + b: 5² + 3 = 28 and 4² + 2 = 18. So 6 @ 4 = 36 + 4 = 40.

  20. Q20.Pointing to a girl, a man said, “She is the daughter of my mother’s only son.” How is the girl related to the man?

    • ADaughter
    • BNiece
    • CSister
    • DCousin

    Answer: (A) Daughter

    The only son of the man’s mother is the man himself. So the girl is the man’s daughter.

  21. Q21.If P is the maternal uncle of Q, how is Q related to P’s sister?

    • ANiece/Nephew
    • BCousin
    • CSon
    • DCannot be determined

    Answer: (A) Niece/Nephew

    P is Q’s maternal uncle, so P is the brother of Q’s mother. SSC’s key treats P’s sister as another sister of P, whose niece or nephew Q is. Note: if the sister meant is Q’s own mother, Q would be her son or daughter. The question does not say which sister, so the key is arguable; we keep SSC’s answer.

  22. Q22.After interchanging + & × and 3 & 9, which of the following equations will hold true?

    • A(3+5)×9=48
    • B(9+2)×3=10
    • C(3+7)×9=60
    • D(9+1)×3=15

    Answer: (A) (3+5)×9=48

    Swap + with × and 3 with 9 in each option. (a) (3+5)×9 becomes (9×5)+3 = 45 + 3 = 48, which is true. (b) gives (3×2)+9 = 15, not 10. (c) gives (9×7)+3 = 66, not 60. (d) gives (3×1)+9 = 12, not 15.

  23. Q23.If a % b = 37, where a % b = a + 2b, what is the value of a and b?

    • A25,5
    • B27, 5
    • C16, 10
    • D27, 10

    Answer: (B) 27, 5

    Check a + 2b = 37: 25 + 10 = 35, 27 + 10 = 37 for (27, 5), 16 + 20 = 36, 27 + 20 = 47. Only a = 27, b = 5 works.

  24. Q24.If + = ×, − = +, × = ÷; then 10 + 2 − 4 × 2 = ?

    • A10
    • B19
    • C22
    • D24

    Answer: (C) 22

    Replace the signs: 10 × 2 + 4 ÷ 2. Doing × and ÷ first: 20 + 2 = 22.

  25. Q25.In a tournament of 7 players, each player plays every other player once. How many matches are there?

    • A21
    • B42
    • C36
    • D28

    Answer: (A) 21

    Each pair of players meets once, so the number of matches is 7C2 = 7 × 6/2 = 21.

General Awareness (Q26–50)

  1. Q26.Arrange the following classical dances in chronological order of earliest historical references (oldest to newest): 1. Bharatanatyam 2. Mohiniyattam 3. Kathak 4. Manipuri

    • A1 - 3 - 2 - 4
    • B1 - 2 - 4 - 3
    • C1 - 3 - 4 - 2
    • D1 - 4 - 3 - 2

    Answer: (C) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2

    SSC’s order: Bharatanatyam (roots in the Natyashastra and Tamil Sangam-era texts), Kathak (the kathakars, story-tellers of north Indian temples), Manipuri, then Mohiniyattam (associated with 18th-19th century Travancore). Note: earliest references are debated; the term Mohiniyattam appears in a 16th-17th century text, which some place before Manipuri’s earliest dated texts, so option (a) can also be argued. We keep SSC’s key.

  2. Q27.Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with the shape of its roof?

    • ALatina — rectangular, wagon-shaped
    • BPhamsana — slabs rising to a point, straight incline
    • CValabhi — tall, curving inward sharply
    • DLatina — low and broad with stepped roofing

    Answer: (B) Phamsana — slabs rising to a point, straight incline

    In north Indian temple architecture, phamsana roofs are made of slabs that rise to a single point in a straight incline, without the inward curve of the tall latina shikhara. Valabhi roofs are rectangular and wagon-vaulted, so options (a), (c) and (d) mismatch the names.

  3. Q28.The Pongtu Festival, celebrated by the Tutsa tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, is primarily observed to seek blessings from which deity before millet harvesting?

    • ADonyi-Polo
    • BRangkhothak
    • CRangfraa
    • DNyegi-Nyapa

    Answer: (B) Rangkhothak

    The Tutsa of Changlang and Tirap celebrate Pongtu (Pongtu Kuh) in April, before the millet harvest, offering prayers to the supreme god Rangkhothak for a good harvest and protection from calamities (Changlang district administration).

  4. Q29.Fill in the blanks: In Teen Taal of Hindustani Classical Music, the Khali is marked on the _____ matra.

    • A1
    • B5
    • C9
    • D13

    Answer: (C) 9

    Teentaal has 16 beats in four divisions of 4. The sam (1st beat) and the 5th and 13th beats are tali (claps), and the 9th beat is the khali (wave).

  5. Q30.Why is the weight and circumference of a cricket ball strictly regulated in official matches?

    • AHeavier balls suit bowlers, lighter ones suit batsmen, so balance is needed
    • BVariations affect bounce, swing, and fairness on standard pitches
    • CICC mandates it to cut costs and simplify logistics
    • DOnly red balls follow this; white balls have separate norms

    Answer: (B) Variations affect bounce, swing, and fairness on standard pitches

    The size and weight of the ball (155.9-163 g for men’s cricket) are fixed by the Laws of Cricket because they change bounce, swing and seam movement. Fixed standards keep matches fair and comparable everywhere.

  6. Q31.Which Indian athlete won the first-ever Paralympic gold in archery at the Paris 2024 Paralympics?

    • ASheetal Devi
    • BHarvinder Singh
    • CRakesh Kumar
    • DPreethi Pal

    Answer: (B) Harvinder Singh

    Harvinder Singh won India’s first-ever Paralympic gold in archery in the men’s individual recurve open at Paris 2024. Sheetal Devi won bronze in the mixed compound team event there.

  7. Q32.Which city hosted the Meeting of the BRICS Ministers of Foreign Affairs on 4 June 2018?

    • APretoria, South Africa
    • BBrasilia, Brazil
    • CBeijing, China
    • DNew Delhi, India

    Answer: (A) Pretoria, South Africa

    The BRICS Ministers of Foreign Affairs met in Pretoria, South Africa, on 4 June 2018, when South Africa held the BRICS chair ahead of the Johannesburg summit.

  8. Q33.Which of the following best describes the theme of the book 'Hot Stage'?

    • AA collection of modern Indian plays on social issues
    • BA historical account of India’s independence movement
    • CA novel about ancient Indian mythology
    • DA travelogue about the Himalayas

    Answer: (A) A collection of modern Indian plays on social issues

    SSC’s key describes Hot Stage as a collection of modern Indian plays on social issues. Note: the book published under this title is Anita Nair’s Hot Stage (2023-24), a crime novel in her Inspector Gowda series that deals with social themes. None of the options describes it accurately, so the question is arguable; we keep SSC’s answer.

  9. Q34.Which of the following is not typically considered a weather element?

    • ATemperature
    • BHumidity
    • CSoil pH
    • DWind

    Answer: (C) Soil pH

    Weather elements are atmospheric conditions such as temperature, humidity, pressure, wind, cloud and rainfall. Soil pH is a property of soil, not of the atmosphere.

  10. Q35.Which of the following about the 61st National Chess Championship is/are correct? 1.) GM Karthik Venkataraman won in Gurgaon and got ₹6 lakh. 2.) IM Neelash Saha finished 2nd but lost due to a tiebreak game vs Ganguly.

    • AOnly 1
    • BOnly 2
    • CBoth 1 and 2 are correct
    • DNeither 1 nor 2 is correct

    Answer: (A) Only 1

    Statement 1 is correct: GM Karthik Venkataraman won the 61st National Chess Championship at Gurugram (August 2024) and got ₹6 lakh. Statement 2 is wrong: Karthik, Surya Shekhar Ganguly and Neelash Saha all scored 9/11; on Buchholz tie-break Ganguly was 2nd and Saha 3rd, with no tiebreak game played (AICF; FIDE).

  11. Q36.What was launched on Electrical Safety Day 2025 by MoS Power and New & Renewable Energy, Shri Shripad Naik?

    • ANational Fire Safety Code
    • BSuraksha Shakti safety mascot
    • CSmart Meter Adoption Program
    • DDigital Grid Optimization Tool

    Answer: (B) Suraksha Shakti safety mascot

    On Electrical Safety Day, 26 June 2025, MoS for Power and New & Renewable Energy Shripad Naik launched the safety mascot Suraksha Shakti and released an Electrical Safety Handbook (PIB, 28 June 2025).

  12. Q37.Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The Chotanagpur Plateau is considered an eastern extension of the Central Highlands. Reason (R): The Chotanagpur Plateau is drained primarily by the Chambal and Betwa rivers.

    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    • CA is true, but R is false
    • DA is false, but R is true

    Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false

    A is true: NCERT describes the Chotanagpur plateau as the further eastward extension of the Central Highlands. R is false: the Chotanagpur plateau is drained mainly by the Damodar; the Chambal and Betwa drain the Malwa and Bundelkhand region.

  13. Q38.In which year is the first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) scheduled for launch?

    • A2028
    • B2030
    • C2035
    • D2040

    Answer: (A) 2028

    ISRO plans to launch the first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS-1) in 2028, with the full station by 2035.

  14. Q39.Which statement best reflects the role of non-metallic minerals in India?

    • AIndia lacks enough reserves for industrial use.
    • BMostly used as gems, with minimal industrial use.
    • CIndia has rich reserves vital for major industries.
    • DOnly metallic minerals drive industrial growth.

    Answer: (C) India has rich reserves vital for major industries.

    India has large reserves of non-metallic minerals such as limestone, mica, gypsum and dolomite. They are vital for cement, electrical, fertiliser and steel industries.

  15. Q40.A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by each House within how many months?

    • A1
    • B3
    • C6
    • D9

    Answer: (A) 1

    Under Article 352, as amended by the 44th Amendment (1978), a proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.

  16. Q41.Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is widely recognized as the workhorse launch vehicle of ISRO. Reason (R): PSLV is highly versatile, capable of launching a diverse range of payloads into various Earth orbits (including Earth Observation, small Geosynchronous, and Navigation satellites), and boasts an exceptionally high mission success rate across its different variants.

    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    • CA is true, but R is false
    • DA is false, but R is true

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    PSLV is called ISRO’s workhorse because it is versatile (polar, sun-synchronous, GTO and other orbits, e.g. IRNSS, Chandrayaan-1, Mars Orbiter Mission) and has a long record of successful launches. That versatility and reliability are the reason, so R explains A.

  17. Q42.Which of the following is true regarding the Anglo-Indian representation in State Assemblies?

    • AThe Governor still nominates one Anglo-Indian member to the Assembly.
    • BThe provision was abolished by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
    • CThe provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment.
    • DAnglo-Indian members are elected through proportional representation.

    Answer: (C) The provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment.

    Nomination of Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha (Art. 331) and to State Assemblies (Art. 333) was ended by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, with effect from January 2020.

  18. Q43.Which of the following changes has Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS) brought to criminal procedure?

    • AReplaced all IPC sections
    • BVideo-recorded confessions
    • CPresumption of guilt
    • DScrapping of all bail rights

    Answer: (B) Video-recorded confessions

    The BNSS allows statements and confessions to be recorded by audio-video electronic means (Section 183) and requires videography of searches and seizures. Of the options, video-recorded confessions is the real change; the BNSS did not replace IPC sections (that was the BNS), presume guilt or scrap bail.

  19. Q44.Which scheme supports financial services through postmen?

    • ANSAP
    • BIPPB
    • CPMJAY
    • DPRAGATI

    Answer: (B) IPPB

    India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), owned by the Department of Posts, provides banking and financial services at the doorstep through postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks.

  20. Q45.Fill in the Blank: Kalbelia dance represents the movement of _____.

    • ACamels
    • BSnakes
    • CBirds
    • DHorses

    Answer: (B) Snakes

    Kalbelia is a folk dance of Rajasthan’s Kalbelia snake-charmer community. Its swirling movements imitate a serpent, and it is on UNESCO’s intangible heritage list.

  21. Q46.According to the IMD World Competitiveness Ranking 2025, which dimension does the country Switzerland hold 1st position in for both 2024 and 2025?

    • ABusiness Efficiency
    • BInfrastructure
    • CEconomic Performance
    • DEmployment

    Answer: (B) Infrastructure

    In the IMD World Competitiveness Ranking 2025, Switzerland was 1st overall and kept 1st place in both Government Efficiency and Infrastructure from 2024. Of the options, only Infrastructure fits (IMD booklet 2025).

  22. Q47.The 'Mangrove Cell' initiative in 2025 is primarily linked to which Indian state?

    • AOdisha
    • BAndhra Pradesh
    • CMaharashtra
    • DWest Bengal

    Answer: (C) Maharashtra

    The Mangrove Cell is a dedicated unit of the Maharashtra Forest Department (set up in 2012) for protecting and restoring the state’s mangroves.

  23. Q48.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Iron and steel is considered a heavy industry. Reason (R): It requires lightweight raw materials like cotton and rubber.

    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    • CA is true, but R is false
    • DA is false, but R is true

    Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false

    A is true: iron and steel is a heavy industry. R is false: it uses heavy, bulky raw materials such as iron ore, coking coal and limestone, not cotton and rubber.

  24. Q49.Consider the following statements about the MISHTI Scheme: 1. It aims at mangrove plantation using scientific methods. 2. It was announced under Budget 2023-24. 3. It includes commercial leasing of mangrove forests.

    • AOnly 1 and 2 are correct
    • BOnly 2 and 3 are correct
    • COnly 1 and 3 are correct
    • DAll 1, 2 and 3 are correct

    Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct

    MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes) was announced in the Union Budget 2023-24 to plant mangroves along the coast using scientific methods, so 1 and 2 are correct. It does not involve commercial leasing of mangrove forests.

  25. Q50.Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was abrogated by which constitutional mechanism?

    • APresidential Order under Article 370(3)
    • BAmendment by Parliament under Article 368
    • COrdinance by the President
    • DOrder under Article 356

    Answer: (A) Presidential Order under Article 370(3)

    In August 2019 the President issued orders under Article 370 (C.O. 272 and the declaration under Article 370(3)), after which Article 370’s special provisions stopped applying. The Supreme Court upheld this in December 2023.

Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–75)

  1. Q51.If 60% of A = 0.3 of B =1/6 of C, find A: B: C.

    • A5 : 10 : 18
    • B18 : 10 : 5
    • C6 : 3 : 10
    • D10 : 5 : 18

    Answer: (A) 5 : 10 : 18

    Let 0.6A = 0.3B = C/6 = k. Then A = 5k/3, B = 10k/3, C = 6k. Multiplying by 3/k: A : B : C = 5 : 10 : 18.

  2. Q52.A car travels 0.875 km in 1 minute. How far does it travel in 1 hour 45 minutes?

    • A91.875 km
    • B94.576 km
    • C95.444 km
    • D92.582 km

    Answer: (A) 91.875 km

    1 hour 45 minutes = 105 minutes. Distance = 0.875 × 105 = 91.875 km.

  3. Q53.Simplify: (1/(7 + √2)) + (1/(7 − √2)) − (14/(49 − 2))

    • A0
    • B1
    • C2
    • D√2

    Answer: (A) 0

    1/(7 + √2) + 1/(7 − √2) = (7 − √2 + 7 + √2)/(49 − 2) = 14/47. Subtracting 14/47 leaves 0.

  4. Q54.The expenditure of a household on food, clothing, and entertainment is in the ratio 2 : 4 : 4. In the coming year, the cost of food is expected to fall by 10%, clothing to rise by 5%, and entertainment to fall by 15%. What is the percent change (increase or decrease) in the total household expenditure?

    • A5% decrease
    • B6% increase
    • C6% decrease
    • D5% increase

    Answer: (C) 6% decrease

    Take spending as 2, 4 and 4 (total 10). New spending: food 2 × 0.9 = 1.8, clothing 4 × 1.05 = 4.2, entertainment 4 × 0.85 = 3.4, total 9.4. Change = −0.6/10 = 6% decrease.

  5. Q55.A and B invested ₹1,20,000 and ₹1,60,000 respectively. A remained for 10 months and B for 7 months. What is the total profit if B's share is ₹16,800?

    • A₹34,800
    • B₹34,000
    • C₹10,000
    • D₹10,500

    Answer: (A) ₹34,800

    Profit ratio = 1,20,000 × 10 : 1,60,000 × 7 = 12,00,000 : 11,20,000 = 15 : 14. B’s 14 parts = ₹16,800, so 1 part = ₹1,200 and total profit = 29 × 1,200 = ₹34,800.

  6. Q56.Two individuals, A and B, have rented a field. A places 21 horses in the field for 6 months and 15 cows for 2 months. B adds 15 cows for 6 months and 40 sheep for 7.5 months. If 3 horses consume the same amount of food as 5 cows, and 6 cows eat as much as 10 sheep, what portion of the rent should A cover?

    • A8/17
    • B19/17
    • C16/17
    • D20/17

    Answer: (A) 8/17

    Convert to cow-months (3 horses = 5 cows, so 1 horse = 5/3 cow; 6 cows = 10 sheep, so 1 sheep = 0.6 cow). A: 21 × 6 × 5/3 + 15 × 2 = 210 + 30 = 240. B: 15 × 6 + 40 × 7.5 × 0.6 = 90 + 180 = 270. A’s share = 240/510 = 8/17.

  7. Q57.Two individuals, A and B rent a pasture. A uses 16 cows for a duration of 3 months and 20 sheep for 4 months and B uses 30 sheep for 6 months. If 4 cows are equivalent to 8 sheep, determine A's portion of the rent.

    • A44/89
    • B54/89
    • C64/89
    • D74/89

    Answer: (A) 44/89

    4 cows = 8 sheep, so 1 cow = 2 sheep. In sheep-months, A: 16 × 3 × 2 + 20 × 4 = 96 + 80 = 176; B: 30 × 6 = 180. A’s share = 176/356 = 44/89.

  8. Q58.Three groups of students have average ages 18, 20, and 22 respectively. If the number of students in the three groups is in the ratio 2:3:5, what is the overall average age?

    • A19.6
    • B20.6
    • C15.6
    • D14.6

    Answer: (B) 20.6

    Weighted average = (18 × 2 + 20 × 3 + 22 × 5)/(2 + 3 + 5) = (36 + 60 + 110)/10 = 20.6.

  9. Q59.The average of 11 numbers is 68. If the average of the first five is 63 and the average of the last five is 72, find the 6th number.

    • A73
    • B74
    • C75
    • D76

    Answer: (A) 73

    Sum of 11 numbers = 11 × 68 = 748. First five = 5 × 63 = 315, last five = 5 × 72 = 360. 6th number = 748 − 315 − 360 = 73.

  10. Q60.What is the average of all integers between 300 and 450 that are exactly divisible by 13?

    • A277
    • B377
    • C477
    • D577

    Answer: (B) 377

    Multiples of 13 between 300 and 450 run from 312 (13 × 24) to 442 (13 × 34). Their average is (312 + 442)/2 = 377.

  11. Q61.Evaluate: 12½% of 560 km + 66⅔% of 240 km

    • A140 km
    • B230 km
    • C320 km
    • D450 km

    Answer: (B) 230 km

    12½% of 560 = 1/8 × 560 = 70 km and 66⅔% of 240 = 2/3 × 240 = 160 km. Total = 230 km.

  12. Q62.A vendor sells shirts at ₹500 each, earning a 2% commission, and ties at ₹150 each, with a 12% commission. If he sells 3 shirts and 4 ties per day, what will be his total commission earned in 30 days?

    • A₹2850
    • B₹3000
    • C₹3060
    • D₹3200

    Answer: (C) ₹3060

    Daily commission: shirts 3 × 500 × 2% = ₹30; ties 4 × 150 × 12% = ₹72. Total ₹102 a day, so 30 days = ₹3,060.

  13. Q63.A fruit seller sells apples at a loss of 5% on the cost price but uses a weight that is 20% less than the actual weight. Find his total profit percentage.

    • A20.62%
    • B19.25%
    • C16.28%
    • D18.75%

    Answer: (D) 18.75%

    Let 1 kg cost ₹1. He gives 0.8 kg (cost ₹0.80) but charges the price of 1 kg at a 5% loss, ₹0.95. Profit = 0.15/0.80 × 100 = 18.75%.

  14. Q64.The profit made on an item sold for ₹2200 is equal to the loss incurred when it is sold for ₹1800. What will be the profit or loss percentage if the item is sold for ₹2050?

    • AProfit of 2.25%
    • BLoss of 3.5%
    • CProfit of 2.5%
    • DLoss of 4.25%

    Answer: (C) Profit of 2.5%

    Equal profit and loss means CP is midway: (2200 + 1800)/2 = ₹2,000. At ₹2,050 the profit is 50/2000 = 2.5%.

  15. Q65.A mobile phone retailer sells a phone for ₹P and earns a profit of 20%. For a special festive offer, he marks the same phone at ₹1.5P. At the offer, he provides a discount of 10%. What will be the percentage profit that he will make during the festive offer?

    • A26%
    • B56%
    • C62%
    • D60%

    Answer: (C) 62%

    CP = P/1.2. Festive price = 1.5P × 0.9 = 1.35P. Profit % = (1.35P ÷ P/1.2 − 1) × 100 = (1.62 − 1) × 100 = 62%.

  16. Q66.A shopkeeper marked an item 25% above its cost price. During a sale, he offered a discount of 10%. What was his profit percentage?

    • A10%
    • B12.50%
    • C15%
    • D17.5%

    Answer: (B) 12.50%

    On CP 100, MP = 125 and SP = 125 × 0.9 = 112.5. Profit = 12.5%.

  17. Q67.A shopkeeper marks his goods at 60% above the cost price. He allows a discount of 25% on the marked price. If he also gives an additional cash discount of ₹150, and still makes a profit of 14% on the cost price, what is the cost price of the goods?

    • A₹2000
    • B₹2500
    • C₹3000
    • D₹3500

    Answer: (B) ₹2500

    Let CP = x. SP = 1.6x × 0.75 − 150 = 1.2x − 150, which equals 1.14x. So 0.06x = 150 and x = ₹2,500.

  18. Q68.How many approximate kgs of sugar costing ₹45 per kg must be mixed with 25 kg of sugar costing ₹32 per kg so that a 15% gain may be obtained by selling the mixture at ₹43.70 per kg?

    • A15 kg
    • B25 kg
    • C21 kg
    • D18 kg

    Answer: (C) 21 kg

    Cost of the mixture = 43.70/1.15 = ₹38 per kg. Let x kg at ₹45 be mixed: 45x + 32 × 25 = 38(x + 25), so 7x = 150 and x ≈ 21.4 kg ≈ 21 kg. (By alligation the ratio is (38 − 32) : (45 − 38) = 6 : 7.)

  19. Q69.A right circular cone has a radius of 7 cm and height of 24 cm. What is the slant height?

    • A25 cm
    • B30 cm
    • C35 cm
    • D40 cm

    Answer: (A) 25 cm

    Slant height l = √(r² + h²) = √(49 + 576) = √625 = 25 cm.

  20. Q70.A lent Rs. 5000 to B for a duration of 2 years and Rs. 3000 to C for a period of 4 years both at the same simple interest rate. In total, he received Rs. 2200 as interest from both borrowers. What is the rate of interest per annum?

    • A10%
    • B12%
    • C15%
    • D17%

    Answer: (A) 10%

    SI = P × R × T/100. 5000 × 2 × R/100 + 3000 × 4 × R/100 = 220R = 2200, so R = 10% per annum.

  21. Q71.A triangular prism has base area of 25 cm². If height is increased by 20%, what is the new volume (original height was 10 cm)?

    • A250 cm³
    • B275 cm³
    • C300 cm³
    • D225 cm³

    Answer: (C) 300 cm³

    Volume of a prism = base area × height. New height = 10 × 1.2 = 12 cm, so volume = 25 × 12 = 300 cm³.

  22. Q72.A circular disc's radius is decreased by 10%. What is the percentage decrease in its area?

    • A10%
    • B19%
    • C18%
    • D15%

    Answer: (B) 19%

    Area is proportional to r². New area = 0.9² = 0.81 of the old, a decrease of 19%.

  23. Q73.A builder has 100 m of fencing wire. He can use this wire to enclose a circular garden or a square garden. If he wants to maximize the enclosed area, what is the approximate ratio of the area of the largest possible circular garden to the area of the largest possible square garden, using the entire 100 m of wire?

    • A1:1
    • B1.27:1
    • C1.57:1
    • D2:1

    Answer: (B) 1.27:1

    Circle: 2πr = 100, so area = 100²/(4π) ≈ 795.8 m². Square: side 25 m, area 625 m². Ratio ≈ 795.8 : 625 ≈ 1.27 : 1 (exactly 4/π).

  24. Q74.A vertical cylindrical container is filled with oil. A solid hemispherical stone of radius 7 cm is immersed completely, and the oil level rises by 3 cm. What is the radius of the cylinder?

    • A6.29 cm
    • B7.43 cm
    • C8.73 cm
    • D11.41 cm

    Answer: (C) 8.73 cm

    The rise in oil equals the hemisphere’s volume: πR² × 3 = (2/3)π × 7³. So R² = 2 × 343/9 ≈ 76.2 and R ≈ 8.73 cm.

  25. Q75.A sector of a circle has a central angle of 120° and a radius of 7 cm. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of 2π/3 radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to the area of the second sector?

    • A3:5
    • B2:3
    • C1:1
    • D4:5

    Answer: (C) 1:1

    120° = 2π/3 radians, so both sectors of the same circle have the same angle and the same area. Ratio = 1 : 1.

English Comprehension (Q76–100)

  1. Q76.Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: NEBULOUS

    • AVague
    • BPrecise
    • CObvious
    • DClear

    Answer: (A) Vague

    Nebulous means vague or unclear. Precise, obvious and clear are opposites.

  2. Q77.Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Erudite

    • AScholarly
    • BUninformed
    • CLearned
    • DIntellectual

    Answer: (B) Uninformed

    Erudite means learned or scholarly. Its opposite is uninformed; scholarly, learned and intellectual are synonyms.

  3. Q78.Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Fly off the handle

    • ATo escape quietly
    • BTo disappear quickly
    • CTo become suddenly angry
    • DTo handle a situation smartly

    Answer: (C) To become suddenly angry

    To fly off the handle means to lose one’s temper suddenly.

  4. Q79.Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Encomium

    • APanegyric
    • BPraise
    • CCastigation
    • DTribute

    Answer: (C) Castigation

    Encomium is high praise. Its opposite is castigation (severe criticism); panegyric, praise and tribute are synonyms.

  5. Q80.Spot the correct spelling of a chromosomal “three copies” term.

    • ATrisomie
    • BTrissomy
    • CTrisomy
    • DTrissomie

    Answer: (C) Trisomy

    Trisomy is the condition of having three copies of a chromosome, e.g. trisomy 21 in Down syndrome.

  6. Q81.Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A state of disuse or inactivity'.

    • AHiatus
    • BOblivion
    • CInterregnum
    • DDesuetude

    Answer: (D) Desuetude

    Desuetude means a state of disuse. A hiatus is a pause, oblivion is being forgotten, and an interregnum is a gap between two reigns or governments.

  7. Q82.Select the correct option: So delicate ___ the negotiations that a single leak could derail them.

    • Aare
    • Bwere
    • Cis
    • Dwas

    Answer: (B) were

    In the inverted structure ‘So delicate ___ the negotiations that…’, the subject is the plural noun ‘the negotiations’ (also picked up by ‘derail them’), so the verb must be plural; with ‘could’ in the second clause, the past form fits: ‘So delicate were the negotiations that a single leak could derail them.’ Answer: were. Note: SSC’s official answer key printed ‘was’ in error; a singular verb cannot agree with ‘the negotiations’, so we show the correct answer, ‘were’.

  8. Q83.Select the correct option: Her interpretation was ___ than insightful; it bordered on the revelatory.

    • Aless
    • Bmore
    • Cother
    • Drather

    Answer: (B) more

    More … than fits the comparison: her interpretation was more than insightful; it bordered on the revelatory. Less would contradict the second clause, and other/rather do not fit before than here.

  9. Q84.Select the correct option: The reforms, while ostensibly motivated by economic exigencies, were in effect a veiled attempt to ___ dissent under the guise of austerity.

    • Aquell
    • Bswell
    • Crebut
    • Dimpugn

    Answer: (A) quell

    To quell dissent is to suppress it, which matches a veiled attempt under the guise of austerity. Swell means increase, rebut means argue against, and impugn means call into question.

  10. Q85.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The more senior the position was (1)/ the more urgent became the need (2)/ for discretion, decorum, and (3)/ refraining from premature disclosure. (4)

    • A(1)
    • B(2)
    • C(3)
    • D(4)

    Answer: (D) (4)

    Parts (3) and (4) form a list after the need for: discretion, decorum, and …. The first two items are nouns, so the third should be a noun too (e.g. restraint from premature disclosure), not the gerund phrase refraining from premature disclosure. SSC’s key marks part (4).

  11. Q86.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The report’s emphasis on techno-optimism, while commendable, (1)/ overlook the structural inequities (2)/ that persist in data accessibility and digital literacy (3)/ across demographic and regional divides. (4)

    • A(1)
    • B(2)
    • C(3)
    • D(4)

    Answer: (B) (2)

    The subject is The report’s emphasis (singular), so the verb must be overlooks, not overlook. The error is in part (2).

  12. Q87.Change the following from active to passive: Why did the editor overlook the substantial stylistic anomalies?

    • AWhy have the substantial stylistic anomalies been overlooked by the editor?
    • BWhy are the substantial stylistic anomalies being overlooked by the editor?
    • CWhy did the substantial stylistic anomalies be overlooked by the editor?
    • DWhy were the substantial stylistic anomalies overlooked by the editor?

    Answer: (D) Why were the substantial stylistic anomalies overlooked by the editor?

    The active question is in the past simple (did overlook), so the passive uses were + past participle: Why were the substantial stylistic anomalies overlooked by the editor?

  13. Q88.Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The historian referenced a ‘bailey’ in Norman military architecture. (Highlighted word shown in quotes.)

    • AThe shepherd gathered his sheep in the bailey.
    • BThe bailey was reinforced with wooden palisades.
    • CThe outer bailey surrounded the motte.
    • DThe king’s guard patrolled the lower bailey.

    Answer: (A) The shepherd gathered his sheep in the bailey.

    A bailey is the courtyard of a castle, enclosed by a wall. SSC’s key marks (a), the only sentence with no castle setting, where the bailey is a place for keeping sheep. Note: dictionaries do not list a separate farmyard meaning for bailey, so no option contains a true homonym; we keep SSC’s answer.

  14. Q89.Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: It has been alleged that confidential data was being leaked by insiders within the firm.

    • AInsiders were leaking confidential data within the firm.
    • BConfidential data had been leaked by insiders, it is alleged.
    • CInsiders have allegedly been leaking confidential data within the firm.
    • DThe firm was allegedly leaking insider data.

    Answer: (C) Insiders have allegedly been leaking confidential data within the firm.

    The passive says it is alleged that insiders were leaking data. The active version keeps the allegation and the continuous sense: Insiders have allegedly been leaking confidential data within the firm.

  15. Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage : Group thinking, often referred to as groupthink, is a psychological phenomenon wherein the desire for unanimity within a group overrides the motivation to appraise alternative viewpoints critically. It frequently leads to flawed decision-making because dissent is either internally suppressed or socially penalized. Social conformity, its close ally, describes the act of aligning one's beliefs or behaviours with those of a majority, often subconsciously, in pursuit of acceptance or avoidance of conflict. In tightly knit groups—such as corporate boards, political committees, or academic panels—individual members may refrain from expressing contrarian ideas, fearing ostracization or reputational risk. Over time, this collective homogeneity breeds intellectual stagnation, reducing innovation and enhancing vulnerability to strategic errors. The infamous Bay of Pigs invasion and the Challenger space shuttle disaster are frequently cited as textbook examples of decisions marred by groupthink. Psychologically, the roots of group conformity lie in our evolutionary inclination toward tribal belonging, where deviation was historically associated with survival risk. In modern society, the same instinct manifests through peer pressure, organizational culture, and digital echo chambers. Algorithms reinforce conformity by curating information bubbles that validate existing biases while filtering out divergent thought. However, the remedy to such cognitive myopia lies in institutionalizing dissent. Constructive disagreement, when encouraged within teams or communities, acts as an intellectual safeguard against tunnel vision. Promoting a culture where counterarguments are respected rather than reprimanded can lead to more robust, balanced, and resilient decision-making. In an age dominated by viral trends, polarized discourse, and performative alignment, the courage to question consensus is both rare and essential. True progress emerges not from blind allegiance to majority norms, but from critical inquiry and the audacity to challenge the comfortable.

    Q90.What is the central idea of groupthink as discussed in the passage?

    • ACollaborative brainstorming
    • BValuing consensus over critique
    • CTrusting only experts
    • DPromoting decentralization

    Answer: (B) Valuing consensus over critique

    The passage defines groupthink as the desire for unanimity overriding critical appraisal of alternatives, i.e. valuing consensus over critique.

  16. Q91.According to the passage, what evolutionary trait contributes to social conformity?

    • AHunger for dominance
    • BNeed for speed
    • CInstinct for tribal survival
    • DDesire for luxury

    Answer: (C) Instinct for tribal survival

    It traces conformity to our evolutionary inclination toward tribal belonging, when deviation meant survival risk, i.e. an instinct for tribal survival.

  17. Q92.Which event is cited as a real-world consequence of groupthink?

    • ACold War treaty signing
    • BChallenger disaster
    • CBrexit vote
    • DThe Dot-com crash

    Answer: (B) Challenger disaster

    The passage cites the Bay of Pigs invasion and the Challenger space shuttle disaster as examples of groupthink. Of the options, only Challenger disaster appears.

  18. Q93.How does digital media reinforce conformity, according to the passage?

    • ABy removing controversial content
    • BBy presenting data in charts
    • CThrough curated echo chambers
    • DBy enabling anonymous posts

    Answer: (C) Through curated echo chambers

    Algorithms reinforce conformity by curating information bubbles that validate existing biases, i.e. curated echo chambers.

  19. Q94.What is suggested as a solution to groupthink and conformity?

    • AHiring more senior leaders
    • BMandating compliance
    • CEncouraging constructive dissent
    • DExpanding digital networks

    Answer: (C) Encouraging constructive dissent

    The remedy given is institutionalising dissent: constructive disagreement acts as a safeguard against tunnel vision.

  20. Q95.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She insisted ‘me to take the medicine’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)

    • Athat I take the medicine
    • Bme that I take medicine
    • Cme taking the medicine
    • Dto take medicine by me

    Answer: (A) that I take the medicine

    Insist is followed by on + gerund or by a that-clause, not by an object + to-infinitive: She insisted that I take the medicine.

  21. Q96.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: No one knows ‘where is he hiding’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)

    • Awhere is he hide
    • Bwhere he is hiding at
    • Cwhere he is hiding
    • Dwhere he has hidden is

    Answer: (C) where he is hiding

    In an indirect (embedded) question the normal statement order is used: No one knows where he is hiding.

  22. Q97.A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said, “I am not feeling well.”

    • AHe said that he is not feeling well.
    • BHe said that he was not feeling well.
    • CHe said that he didn’t felt well.
    • DHe said he not feeling well.

    Answer: (B) He said that he was not feeling well.

    After said, present continuous am not feeling becomes past continuous was not feeling, and I becomes he: He said that he was not feeling well.

  23. Q98.A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The manager told the staff that deadlines must be followed strictly.

    • A“Deadlines must be followed strictly,” said the manager.
    • B“You should follow deadlines strictly,” said the manager.
    • C“Follow deadlines strictly,” the manager said.
    • D“Deadlines are to be followed,” said the manager.

    Answer: (A) “Deadlines must be followed strictly,” said the manager.

    The reported sentence keeps must for obligation and the passive form. The direct version is: Deadlines must be followed strictly, said the manager.

  24. Q99.Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage: 1. The team analyzed the survey data. 2. Insights were used to improve the customer experience. 3. A targeted marketing campaign was created. 4. The data was collected through various channels.

    • A1-4-3-2
    • B3-1-2-4
    • C4-3-1-2
    • D4-1-3-2

    Answer: (D) 4-1-3-2

    The data was first collected (4), then analysed (1), a targeted campaign was created from it (3), and the insights were used to improve customer experience (2). Order: 4-1-3-2.

  25. Q100.Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. These factors include the amount of sunlight received, the composition of the atmosphere, and the Earth's orbit. 2. The long-term variations in Earth's climate are influenced by a complex interplay of natural and anthropogenic factors. 3. The most significant anthropogenic factor is the emission of greenhouse gases from industrial activities. 4. Together, these elements determine the planet's overall energy balance and, consequently, its average temperature.

    • A2, 1, 4, 3
    • B1, 2, 3, 4
    • C3, 4, 1, 2
    • D4, 2, 3, 1

    Answer: (A) 2, 1, 4, 3

    Sentence 2 introduces long-term climate variation and its natural and human factors. Sentence 1 (These factors include…) lists natural ones, and sentence 4 (Together, these elements…) sums up their effect on energy balance. Sentence 3 names the main human factor. SSC’s key order is 2, 1, 4, 3.

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