SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 12 September Shift 2 with Answers
- Exam date
- 12 September 2025
- Shift
- Shift 212:30 PM
SSC uploaded the final answer keys with candidates' response sheets for CGL 2025 Tier-I on 09.01.2026. Each paper here is one shift's response sheet, keyed to SSC's marked answers.
Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.
General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q1–25)
- Official paper: SSC CGL 2025 Tier-I, held on 12 September 2025, Shift 2 (12:30 PM). Questions and the answer key are as printed on SSC’s candidate response sheet. Explanations are written by BookOfExams. Marking: +2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one.
Q1.In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives Liberty : Autonomy :: Equality : ?
- ALegitimacy
- BNeutrality
- CFairness
- DDiversity
Answer: (C) Fairness
Pairs of near-synonyms from political ideas. Liberty is close in meaning to autonomy (self-rule); equality is closest to fairness, i.e. equal and just treatment. Legitimacy, neutrality and diversity are different concepts.
Q2.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. BGL, GLQ, LQV, QVA, ?
- AZAS
- BOKS
- CVAF
- DAVG
Answer: (C) VAF
Every letter moves 5 places forward: B→G→L→Q→V, G→L→Q→V→A, L→Q→V→A→F (wrapping after Z). So QVA is followed by VAF.
Q3.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. DAG, FCI, ? , JGM, LIO
- AGDJ
- BIFL
- CHKE
- DHEK
Answer: (D) HEK
Each letter moves 2 places forward from one term to the next: DAG → FCI → HEK → JGM → LIO. The missing term is HEK.
Q4.Which of the following alternatives will replace the question mark? Atom, Molecule, Cell, ?
- ATissue
- BProton
- CSystem
- DGene
Answer: (A) Tissue
The series climbs the levels of biological organisation: atom → molecule → cell → tissue (then organ, system). Proton is smaller than an atom and gene is part of a cell, so Tissue comes next.
Q5.Complete the series: __________, 150, 183, 219, 258
- A120
- B148
- C361
- D247
Answer: (A) 120
The differences are 183 − 150 = 33, 219 − 183 = 36, 258 − 219 = 39, rising by 3. The difference before 33 is 30, so the first term is 150 − 30 = 120.
Q6.What will come at the place of question mark? 2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ?
- A132
- B140
- C142
- D150
Answer: (A) 132
Each term is n(n + 1) for odd n: 1×2 = 2, 3×4 = 12, 5×6 = 30, 7×8 = 56, 9×10 = 90, so the next is 11×12 = 132. (Differences 10, 18, 26, 34, 42 also rise by 8.)
Q7.Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: Most farmers in the region depend on monsoon rains for irrigation. Conclusions: I. The region does not have proper irrigation infrastructure. II. A weak monsoon may reduce agricultural output.
- AOnly Conclusion I follows
- BOnly Conclusion II follows
- CBoth I and II follow
- DNeither I nor II follows
Answer: (B) Only Conclusion II follows
If farmers depend on rain, a weak monsoon will hurt crops, so II follows. Dependence on rain does not prove there is no irrigation infrastructure at all; it may simply be insufficient, so I does not follow.
Q8.Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: The discovery of exoplanets in habitable zones around distant stars has provided exciting prospects for the search for extraterrestrial life, yet the vast distances and technological limitations pose significant obstacles to direct exploration. Assumptions: I. Exoplanets located in habitable zones may have the potential to support life. II. Current technology is insufficient to directly explore exoplanets in habitable zones. III. Direct exploration of exoplanets will be unnecessary if we detect signs of life remotely.
- AOnly I and II are implicit
- BOnly II and III are implicit
- COnly I is implicit
- DAll assumptions are implicit
Answer: (A) Only I and II are implicit
Calling the search for life on these planets exciting assumes they may support life (I). Saying distance and technology block direct exploration assumes present technology is not enough (II). Nothing in the statement says direct exploration would become unnecessary, so III is not implicit.
Q9.How many meaningful four-letter English words can be formed using the first, second, third, and sixth letters of the word “PROVIDE” (when counted from left to right), using each letter only once in each word?
- AOne
- BThree
- CTwo
- DFive
Answer: (B) Three
The letters are P, R, O and D (1st, 2nd, 3rd and 6th letters of PROVIDE). Common words: DROP and PROD; the third word counted in SSC’s key is DORP (a hamlet or village, valid in standard word lists). SSC’s key is Three. Note: DORP is rare, so many candidates counted only two; we keep SSC’s official answer.
Q10.Which of the following addresses are identical to each other: 1. Rajeev Chauhan 3/5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012 2. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur , 208012 3. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur , 208012 4. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur , 208002
- A1 and 2
- B2 and 3
- C2 and 4
- D3 and 4
Answer: (B) 2 and 3
Address 1 writes the house number as 3/5 while the others write 3-5, and address 4 has PIN 208002 instead of 208012. Addresses 2 and 3 match exactly.
Q11.Each of the letters in the word STAMINA is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is first from the left and the one that is fourth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?
- A11
- B12
- C13
- D14
Answer: (A) 11
STAMINA in alphabetical order: A A I M N S T. First from the left is A (1st letter of the alphabet); fourth from the right is M (13th). Letters between A and M: 13 − 1 − 1 = 11.
Q12.Find the best option that best completes the analogy. NPR : OQS :: XYZ : ?
- AYZA
- BZAB
- CYAC
- DYAZ
Answer: (A) YZA
Each letter moves one place forward: N→O, P→Q, R→S. So X→Y, Y→Z, Z→A (wrapping after Z), giving YZA.
Q13.In a row of 50 books, Book A is 15th from left and Book B is 20th from right. How many books lie between them?
- A17
- B15
- C12
- D10
Answer: (B) 15
Book B is 20th from the right in a row of 50, so it is 50 − 20 + 1 = 31st from the left. Books between the 15th and the 31st: 31 − 15 − 1 = 15.
Q14.In each of the following questions, the second word is formed by rearranging the letters of the first word according to a specific pattern. Identify that pattern and apply the same to the third word to find the correct answer from the given alternatives. NUMERAL : UEALRMN :: ALGEBRA : ?
- ALRBAGEA
- BBARLAGE
- CLERAGBA
- DLERABGA
Answer: (D) LERABGA
NUMERAL has letters at positions 1-7. UEALRMN takes them in the order 2, 4, 6, 7, 5, 3, 1. Applying the same order to ALGEBRA (A L G E B R A) gives L, E, R, A, B, G, A = LERABGA.
Q15.Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:
- ATDS
- BGST
- CVAT
- DDNA
Answer: (D) DNA
TDS (tax deducted at source), GST (goods and services tax) and VAT (value added tax) are all taxes. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is a biological molecule, so it is the odd one.
Q16.If A is the son of B, and B is the brother of C, how is C related to A?
- AFather
- BUncle
- CBrother
- DCousin
Answer: (B) Uncle
B is A’s parent (A is B’s son) and C is B’s sibling. A parent’s sibling is an uncle or aunt; among the options only Uncle fits.
Q17.One number is not like the others: 1331, 2197, 3375, 4096
- A1331
- B3375
- C4096
- D2197
Answer: (C) 4096
1331 = 11³, 2197 = 13³ and 3375 = 15³ are cubes of odd numbers (and are odd). 4096 = 16³ is the cube of an even number, so it is the odd one out.
Q18.Find the number that breaks the pattern: 2, 5, 10, 17, 28, 40, 58
- A10
- B17
- C40
- D28
Answer: (C) 40
The differences should be consecutive primes: 2 (+3) 5 (+5) 10 (+7) 17 (+11) 28 (+13) 41 (+17) 58. The series shows 40 instead of 41, so 40 breaks the pattern.
Q19.In a certain code language, each letter is assigned a unique digit. Based on the given codes for specific words, determine the code for the target word using the same logic. If MOUSE is coded as 45291 and RAT as 786, how is STORE coded?
- A96571
- B97653
- C98345
- D96278
Answer: (A) 96571
From MOUSE = 45291: M=4, O=5, U=2, S=9, E=1. From RAT = 786: R=7, A=8, T=6. STORE = S T O R E = 9 6 5 7 1 = 96571.
Q20.If 7 ＄ 3 = 58 and 6 ＄ 2 = 40, what is 5 ＄ 1?
- A26
- B24
- C28
- D22
Answer: (A) 26
a ＄ b = a² + b²: 7² + 3² = 49 + 9 = 58 and 6² + 2² = 36 + 4 = 40. So 5 ＄ 1 = 25 + 1 = 26.
Q21.Pointing to a girl, a woman says, 'She is the daughter of my mother’s only daughter.’ How is the girl related to the woman?
- ADaughter
- BDaughter-in-law
- CCousin
- DSister
Answer: (A) Daughter
The only daughter of the woman’s mother is the woman herself. So the girl is the daughter of the woman.
Q22.A woman says, “This man's son's sister is my daughter.” How is the woman related to the man?
- AWife
- BSister
- CMother
- DDaughter-in-law
Answer: (A) Wife
The man’s son’s sister is the man’s daughter, and she is also the woman’s daughter. The two are her parents, so the woman is the man’s wife.
Q23.Two numbers are in ratio 7:9, and their sum is 128. Find the numbers.
- A49, 79
- B56, 72
- C62, 66
- D70, 58
Answer: (B) 56, 72
Let the numbers be 7x and 9x. Then 16x = 128, so x = 8 and the numbers are 56 and 72.
Q24.If 16+11=A and 1/9=B, and A % B=(A×B)−1, then what is A % B?
- A0
- B−3
- C2
- D5
Answer: (C) 2
A = 16 + 11 = 27 and B = 1/9. A % B = (A × B) − 1 = 27 × 1/9 − 1 = 3 − 1 = 2.
Q25.If the sum of 28 and 22 is multiplied by 8, what is the result?
- A384
- B400
- C415
- D416
Answer: (B) 400
28 + 22 = 50 and 50 × 8 = 400.
General Awareness (Q26–50)
Q26.Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): Humayun’s Tomb was the first major Mughal garden tomb and directly inspired the design of the Taj Mahal. Reason (R): It introduced the charbagh garden layout and double-domed mausoleum style that became characteristic of later Mughal architecture.
- ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- CA is true, but R is false.
- DA is false, but R is true
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi (1560s-70s) was the first garden tomb on the Indian subcontinent and a model for the Taj Mahal. It brought in the char-bagh (four-part garden) setting and the tall double dome that later Mughal tombs used. So both are true and R explains A.
Q27.Which ancient ruler’s administration is noted for its highly centralized structure?
- AHarshavardhana
- BSamudragupta
- CChandragupta Maurya
- DPulakeshin II
Answer: (C) Chandragupta Maurya
The Mauryan state of Chandragupta Maurya (with Chanakya, as described in the Arthashastra and by Megasthenes) had a highly centralised administration: a powerful king, a council of ministers, many departments, spies and royal officials down to the village. Later rulers such as Harsha and the Guptas relied more on feudatories.
Q28.Which of the following correctly reflects the evolution of Indian classical music?
- AJatis evolved from ragas as per ancient texts
- B72-mela system was given by Bharata in 13th century
- CFolk music originally used mela and grama scales
- DRagas evolved from jatis; 72-mela was by Venkatamakhi
Answer: (D) Ragas evolved from jatis; 72-mela was by Venkatamakhi
Ancient texts (Natyashastra, Brihaddeshi) describe jatis as the forerunners of ragas, so ragas evolved from jatis, not the other way round. The 72-melakarta scheme was set out by Venkatamakhi in the Chaturdandi Prakashika (17th century), not by Bharata. Only option 4 is correct.
Q29.Consider the following statements about the phases of long jump: 1) The athlete attains maximum momentum by running on the runway before take-off. 2) During take-off, the athlete pushes off with the weaker foot to maintain balance. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly 1 is Correct
- BOnly 2 is Correct
- C1 and 2 are correct
- DNeither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer: (A) Only 1 is Correct
Statement 1 is correct: the approach run builds maximum horizontal speed before take-off. Statement 2 is wrong: the jumper takes off from the stronger foot to get the most powerful push. So only 1 is correct.
Q30.Mary Kom’s most recent international gold medal was won at which tournament?
- AAsian Games, Hangzhou
- BPresident’s Cup, Indonesia
- CCommonwealth Games, Birmingham
- DOlympic Games, Tokyo
Answer: (B) President’s Cup, Indonesia
M.C. Mary Kom won her last international gold at the 23rd President’s Cup in Labuan Bajo, Indonesia, in July 2019 (51 kg, beating April Franks 5-0). Later she won bronze at the 2019 World Championships and lost in the Tokyo 2020 pre-quarterfinal.
Q31.The Regulating Act of 1773 primarily introduced changes in the Company's administration in which two distinct areas?
- ACompany's Judicial system and revenue collection.
- BCompany's Military strategy and trade regulations.
- CCompany's constitution at home and territorial control in India.
- DCompany's relations with princely states and foreign policy.
Answer: (C) Company's constitution at home and territorial control in India.
The Regulating Act of 1773 changed the Company’s constitution at home (rules for the Court of Directors and Court of Proprietors) and its government in India (a Governor-General of Bengal with a council, control over Bombay and Madras, and a Supreme Court at Calcutta).
Q32.Consider the following statements regarding India’s water-sharing treaties with its neighbours: 1) The Mahakali Treaty signed with Nepal in 1996 includes provisions for integrated development of the Mahakali River and the Pancheshwar Project. 2) The Ganga Water Treaty signed with Bangladesh in 1996 allows for the sharing of Ganga waters at Farakka throughout the entire year. Which of the statements above is/are correct?
- AOnly 1 is Correct
- BOnly 2 is Correct
- CBoth 1 and 2 are Correct
- DNeither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer: (A) Only 1 is Correct
Statement 1 is correct: the 1996 Mahakali Treaty with Nepal covers integrated development of the Mahakali river, including the Pancheshwar project. Statement 2 is wrong: the 1996 Ganga Waters Treaty sets sharing at Farakka for the lean season (1 January to 31 May), not the whole year.
Q33.Fill in the blank: Under the SLKIC vertical of Khelo India, ____ Kendriya Vidyalayas have been adopted in partnership with KVS.
- A3
- B4
- C5
- D6
Answer: (B) 4
Under the State Level Khelo India Centres (SLKIC) vertical, four Kendriya Vidyalayas (Gwalior, Ghaziabad, Delhi Cantt. and Sidhi) have been adopted as SLKICs in partnership with the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (Khelo India website; PIB).
Q34.Consider the following statements about “The Adventures of Kakababu, Volume 1” by Sunil Gangopadhyaya: 1) A pioneering Bengali adventure novel featuring detective Kakababu with mystery and cultural themes. 2) A political satire on post-independence Indian governance. 3) An autobiography of the author’s freedom fighter experiences in Bengal. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- AOnly statement 1 is correct
- BOnly statement 2 is correct
- CStatements 2 and 3 are correct
- D1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer: (A) Only statement 1 is correct
Sunil Gangopadhyay’s Kakababu stories are Bengali adventure-mystery novels featuring Kakababu (Raja Roy Chowdhury), so statement 1 is correct. The book is neither a political satire nor an autobiography.
Q35.Which indian political leader addressed a special session in 2025 on “Environment, COP-30, and Global Health”?
- APiyush Goyal
- BHardeep Puri
- CNarendra Modi
- DS. Jaishankar
Answer: (C) Narendra Modi
Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the session on Environment, COP-30 and Global Health at the 17th BRICS Summit in Rio de Janeiro on 7 July 2025 (PIB, 7 July 2025).
Q36.Which of the following types of landslides involves backward rotation of the slipping material?
- ARockslide
- BRock fall
- CSlump
- DDebris fall
Answer: (C) Slump
A slump is a slide in which a block of earth or rock moves down along a curved surface and rotates backwards as it slips. A rockslide moves along a flat plane, and rock falls and debris falls drop freely.
Q37.What is meant by population density?
- APopulation per household
- BPeople per square kilometre
- CPeople per region
- DPeople per district
Answer: (B) People per square kilometre
Population density is the number of people living per unit area, usually stated as persons per square kilometre.
Q38.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Population explosion occurs when death rates decline rapidly but birth rates remain high. Reason (R): Societal reproductive behavior changes instantly with improvements in healthcare.
- ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
- BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
- CA is true, but R is false
- DA is false, but R is true
Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false
A is true: a population explosion happens when death rates fall fast (better health care, food) while birth rates stay high. R is false: reproductive behaviour changes slowly, over a generation or more; that time lag is exactly why the explosion occurs.
Q39.Which of the following best reflects the fundamental objective of applying generative design in aerospace systems engineering?
- AFacilitating seamless integration of multi-payload platforms in shared bus structures
- BOptimizing mechanical configurations for minimum mass and maximum structural resilience
- CEnhancing life-support redundancies to meet crew safety protocols in deep-space missions
- DDesigning adaptive thrust mechanisms to dynamically control orbital corrections
Answer: (B) Optimizing mechanical configurations for minimum mass and maximum structural resilience
Generative design uses algorithms to explore many shapes and pick structures that meet load and strength limits with the least material. In aerospace the aim is parts with minimum mass and maximum structural strength.
Q40.The function of lysosomes in cells is:
- AProtein synthesis
- BIntracellular digestion
- CEnergy production
- DGenetic information storage
Answer: (B) Intracellular digestion
Lysosomes contain digestive (hydrolytic) enzymes and break down food particles, worn-out organelles and microbes inside the cell, i.e. intracellular digestion. They are called the suicide bags of the cell.
Q41.Which of the following statements regarding Article 270 are correct? 1) Article 270 governs the sharing of taxes between the Union and States, including proceeds from GST. 2) After the 101st Constitutional Amendment, Article 270 includes provisions for distributing revenue from Union taxes and GST. 3) The GST Compensation Cess is also shared between the Union and States under Article 270.
- A1 and 3 only
- B1 Only
- C1 & 2 only
- D2 & 3 only
Answer: (C) 1 & 2 only
Article 270, as amended by the 101st Amendment (2016), governs how Union taxes, including GST collected by the Union, are distributed between the Union and the States, so 1 and 2 are correct. The GST Compensation Cess was levied under a separate law and paid to States as compensation; it is not part of the divisible pool shared under Article 270, so 3 is wrong.
Q42.If Earth's radius were reduced by 1% while its mass remained unchanged, what would be the effect on the gravitational acceleration at its surface?
- AIncrease by approximately 1%
- BDecrease by approximately 2%
- CIncrease by approximately 2%
- DDecrease by approximately 1%
Answer: (C) Increase by approximately 2%
g = GM/R². With M fixed, g is proportional to 1/R². If R becomes 0.99R, g becomes g/0.9801 ≈ 1.0203g, an increase of about 2%.
Q43.Under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita(BNSS), what is the maximum period for which a person can be held in police custody in total, even if remanded periodically by a magistrate?
- A30 days
- B60 days
- C90 days
- D15 days (for initial remand, extendable)
Answer: (D) 15 days (for initial remand, extendable)
Under Section 187(2) of the BNSS, police custody can total at most 15 days. These can be taken in one stretch or in parts during the first 40 or 60 days of the 60- or 90-day detention period. The keyed option, 15 days, is that cap. Note: its wording (extendable) is loose, because the total of 15 days cannot be exceeded; only the window in which it is used is wider.
Q44.What is the age range for farmers to enrol in the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)?
- A18–30 years
- B18–40 years
- C21–45 years
- D25–50 years
Answer: (B) 18–40 years
The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (2019), a pension scheme for small and marginal farmers, is open to farmers aged 18 to 40 years. It pays a pension of ₹3,000 a month from age 60.
Q45.Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): UDAN Scheme improves regional air connectivity. Reason (R): It provides financial viability gap funding to airlines.
- ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
- BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
- CA is true, but R is false
- DA is false, but R is true
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik, 2016) improves regional air connectivity, and a key tool for that is viability gap funding to airlines on under-served routes, along with concessions from the Centre, states and airports. So both are true and R explains A.
Q46.According to the Global Cities Index 2025 by Oxford Economics, which two cities retained their top positions?
- ATokyo and Beijing
- BLondon and New York
- CParis and Rome
- DBerlin and Moscow
Answer: (B) London and New York
In Oxford Economics’ Global Cities Index 2025, New York stayed 1st and London 2nd, the same top two as in 2024 (Oxford Economics, May 2025).
Q47.Which of the following statements about light industries is correct?
- AThey process heavy ores and minerals.
- BThey produce large-scale industrial machinery.
- CThey require bulky and heavy raw materials.
- DUse light materials to make consumer goods
Answer: (D) Use light materials to make consumer goods
Light industries use light raw materials and make consumer goods such as garments, electronics and food products. Processing heavy ores, bulky raw materials and big machinery are features of heavy industry.
Q48.Schedule VII of the Constitution contains ______.
- AElection guidelines
- BThree legislative lists
- CEmergency powers
- DJudicial provisions
Answer: (B) Three legislative lists
The Seventh Schedule divides legislative subjects into three lists: the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List.
Q49.A coastal city implements a plan to build sea walls and elevate buildings in response to rising sea levels. This action primarily falls under which category of climate change response?
- AClimate Change Mitigation.
- BCarbon Sequestration.
- CGeoengineering.
- DClimate Change Adaptation.
Answer: (D) Climate Change Adaptation.
Building sea walls and raising buildings protects people from the effects of climate change that are already happening. That is adaptation. Mitigation means cutting greenhouse gas emissions; carbon sequestration and geoengineering are ways of reducing or offsetting warming.
Q50.What specific physical quantity ensures a satellite maintains its orbit without continuous propulsion?
- AMass
- BGravitational pull
- COrbital velocity
- DAtmospheric drag
Answer: (C) Orbital velocity
A satellite stays in orbit because it moves sideways at its orbital velocity: gravity keeps pulling it inward, and this speed makes it keep falling around the Earth instead of into it. Without that velocity gravity alone would bring it down, and atmospheric drag only slows it.
Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–75)
Q51.Let x = √3 + √5 and y = √8 + √2. Which is greater?
- Ax = y
- Bx > y
- Cx < y
- DCannot be determined
Answer: (C) x < y
x = √3 + √5 ≈ 1.732 + 2.236 = 3.968 and y = √8 + √2 ≈ 2.828 + 1.414 = 4.243. So x < y. (Squaring: x² = 8 + 2√15 ≈ 15.75, y² = 10 + 2√16 = 18.)
Q52.The number of red, blue, and green marbles in a bag is in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6. If 20 red marbles, 15 blue marbles, and an unknown number of green marbles are added to the bag, the ratio of red, blue, and green marbles becomes 4 : 5 : 7. Determine the number of green marbles added.
- A3
- B5
- C7
- D9
Answer: (B) 5
Let the counts be 3k, 4k, 6k. After adding: (3k + 20) : (4k + 15) = 4 : 5, so 15k + 100 = 16k + 60 and k = 40. Red = 140, blue = 175, so one ratio unit is 35 and green must become 7 × 35 = 245. Green was 6 × 40 = 240, so 5 were added.
Q53.Evaluate the continued fraction: x = 2 + 1/(3 + 1/(4 + 1/2))
- A67/29
- B41/17
- C45/19
- D47/20
Answer: (A) 67/29
Work from the inside: 4 + 1/2 = 9/2; 3 + 2/9 = 29/9; 1 ÷ 29/9 = 9/29; x = 2 + 9/29 = 67/29.
Q54.A and B invest ₹40,000 and ₹60,000 respectively in a business. What is A's share in a profit of ₹50,000?
- A₹15,000
- B₹20,000
- C₹25,000
- D₹30,000
Answer: (B) ₹20,000
Profit is shared in the ratio of capital, 40,000 : 60,000 = 2 : 3. A’s share = 2/5 × 50,000 = ₹20,000.
Q55.A and B contribute to a business investment in the ratio 3:5. They earn a profit of ₹64,000. A is a working partner and receives 10% of the profit extra. What is A’s total share?
- A₹26,500
- B₹28,000
- C₹38,500
- D₹36,000
Answer: (B) ₹28,000
A first gets 10% of ₹64,000 = ₹6,400 as working partner. The remaining ₹57,600 is split 3 : 5, so A gets 3/8 × 57,600 = ₹21,600. Total = 6,400 + 21,600 = ₹28,000.
Q56.In a team of 75 employees, the average monthly sales per employee is ₹ 1.8 lakh. If 30 junior employees average ₹ 1.2 lakh each, what is the average monthly sales figure (in ₹ lakh) for the senior employees?
- A₹4.2 lakh
- B₹2.2 lakh
- C₹2.8 lakh
- D₹2.7 lakh
Answer: (B) ₹2.2 lakh
Total sales = 75 × 1.8 = 135 lakh. Juniors = 30 × 1.2 = 36 lakh. The other 45 seniors make 135 − 36 = 99 lakh, an average of 99/45 = ₹2.2 lakh.
Q57.The price of petrol shot up by 5%. Before the hike, the price was Rs. 82 per litre. A man travels 3045 km every month and his car gives a mileage of 15 km per litre. What is the increase in the monthly expenditure (to the nearest Rs.) on the man's travel due to the hike in the petrol prices?
- A₹820
- B₹832
- C₹845
- D₹850
Answer: (B) ₹832
Petrol used = 3045/15 = 203 litres a month. A 5% rise on ₹82 is ₹4.10 per litre. Extra cost = 203 × 4.10 = ₹832.30 ≈ ₹832.
Q58.A company placed an order for 20 high-end laptops and some quantity of standard desktops. The price of a high-end laptop was 5 times that of a standard desktop. Due to a mistake, the number of laptops and desktops was interchanged in the delivery. This caused the total bill to increase by 80%. What was the ratio of the number of high-end laptops to standard desktops in the original order?
- A1:2
- B2:1
- C5:2
- D2:5
Answer: (D) 2:5
Let a desktop cost d and a laptop 5d, with D desktops ordered. Ordered bill = 100d + Dd; delivered bill = 5Dd + 20d. Then 5D + 20 = 1.8(100 + D), so 3.2D = 160 and D = 50. Laptops : desktops = 20 : 50 = 2 : 5.
Q59.Find the compound interest on ₹8,000 at 12% per annum for 3 years 4 months, compounded annually.
- A₹3,000
- B₹4,000
- C₹3,689
- D₹3,600
Answer: (C) ₹3,689
For 3 years: 8000 × 1.12³ = ₹11,239.42. For the extra 4 months (1/3 year) interest is 12% × 1/3 = 4%: 11,239.42 × 1.04 = ₹11,688.99. CI = 11,689 − 8,000 ≈ ₹3,689.
Q60.A candy shop owner buys three kinds of candies: red, blue, and green. Red candies are purchased at 3 for ₹15, blue candies at 4 for ₹18, and green candies at 5 for ₹22. He mixes them in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. He sells all the mixed candies at 2 for ₹10. What is his approximate gain or loss percentage?
- ALoss of 9.2%
- BProfit of 9.29%
- CProfit of 10%
- DLoss of 10%
Answer: (B) Profit of 9.29%
Cost per candy: red ₹5, blue ₹4.50, green ₹4.40. Mixed 1 : 1 : 2, the average cost is (5 + 4.5 + 2 × 4.4)/4 = ₹4.575. Selling price is ₹5 each. Profit % = 0.425/4.575 × 100 ≈ 9.29%.
Q61.The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 7:5. If 20 more girls join the school, the new ratio of boys to girls becomes 7:6. What is the total number of students in the school initially?
- A200
- B240
- C300
- D360
Answer: (B) 240
Boys 7x, girls 5x. 7x : (5x + 20) = 7 : 6 gives 42x = 35x + 140, so x = 20. Initial total = 12x = 240.
Q62.A, B, and C are capable of completing a job in 30, 45, and 90 days, respectively. A works every day, while B and C join A every fifth day. How long will it take to finish the task?
- A25 days
- B18 days
- C16 days
- D12 days
Answer: (A) 25 days
A does 1/30 a day. Every 5th day B and C join: 1/30 + 1/45 + 1/90 = 6/90 = 1/15. Work in each 5-day block = 4/30 + 1/15 = 6/30 = 1/5. Five such blocks finish the job: 25 days.
Q63.A 100-litre solution contains acid and water in the ratio 3:2. Some quantity of this solution is removed and replaced with pure acid. If the final ratio of acid to water becomes 7:3, how many litres of solution were replaced?
- A35 litres
- B25 litres
- C50 litres
- D20 litres
Answer: (B) 25 litres
The 100 litres hold 60 L acid and 40 L water. Removing x litres of mixture removes water in proportion, and the acid added has no water. Water left = 40(1 − x/100), which must be 30% of 100 = 30 L. So x = 25 litres.
Q64.The ratio of the efficiencies of two workers, P and Q, is 5 : 2. If P can complete a project in 12 days, how many days will Q take to complete the same project alone?
- A24 days
- B30 days
- C35 days
- D40 days
Answer: (B) 30 days
Time is inversely proportional to efficiency. Q is 2/5 as efficient as P, so Q takes 12 × 5/2 = 30 days.
Q65.A car starts from point P on a circular track and an SUV starts from point Q, which is 600 meters ahead of P in the direction of motion. The car's speed is 15 m/s, and the SUV's speed is 10 m/s. The circumference of the track is 1.5 km. How much distance will the car have traveled when it first overtakes the SUV?
- A900 m
- B1200 m
- C1500 m
- D1800 m
Answer: (D) 1800 m
The car gains 15 − 10 = 5 m/s on the SUV, which is 600 m ahead. It catches up after 600/5 = 120 s, by which time the car has gone 15 × 120 = 1800 m.
Q66.A circular park having a radius of 14 m. If a 1.5 m wide path is built around it, what is the approximate area of the path?
- A139 m²
- B135 m²
- C142 m²
- D150 m²
Answer: (A) 139 m²
Outer radius = 14 + 1.5 = 15.5 m. Path area = π(15.5² − 14²) = 22/7 × (240.25 − 196) = 22/7 × 44.25 ≈ 139 m².
Q67.What is 5π/4 radians in degrees?
- A225°
- B180°
- C240°
- D360°
Answer: (A) 225°
Multiply by 180/π: 5π/4 × 180/π = 225°.
Q68.The line y = −x + 4 passes through which of the following points?
- A(2, 2)
- B(5, 4)
- C(1, 2)
- D(3, 6)
Answer: (A) (2, 2)
Substitute each point in y = −x + 4. For (2, 2): −2 + 4 = 2. It works. (5, 4) gives −1, (1, 2) gives 3, and (3, 6) gives 1, so they do not lie on the line.
Q69.What is the central angle of a sector with an arc length of 10 cm in a circle of radius 5 cm?
- A6 radians
- B3 radians
- C2 radians
- D4 radians
Answer: (C) 2 radians
Arc length = rθ, so θ = 10/5 = 2 radians.
Q70.If tan(90° − A) = √3, what is sin A?
- A1/2
- B√3/2
- C√2/2
- D3/4
Answer: (A) 1/2
tan(90° − A) = cot A = √3, so A = 30° and sin A = 1/2.
Q71.If x = √7, determine the value of x + 1/x.
- A8√7/7
- B7√7/8
- C7√7/9
- D9√7/7
Answer: (A) 8√7/7
x + 1/x = √7 + 1/√7 = (7 + 1)/√7 = 8/√7 = 8√7/7.
Q72.Two triangles are similar with sides in the ratio 3:5. What is the ratio of their areas?
- A3:5
- B5:3
- C9:25
- D25:9
Answer: (C) 9:25
For similar triangles the ratio of areas is the square of the ratio of sides: 3² : 5² = 9 : 25.
Q73.If x = √((2 + √3)/(2 − √3)), then determine the value of x² + x − 9?
- A3√3
- B5√3
- C7√3
- D9√3
Answer: (B) 5√3
Rationalise: (2 + √3)/(2 − √3) = (2 + √3)²/(4 − 3) = (2 + √3)², so x = 2 + √3. Then x² = 7 + 4√3 and x² + x − 9 = 7 + 4√3 + 2 + √3 − 9 = 5√3.
Q74.The angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are in the ratio 1:2:3:4. What is the measure of the smallest angle?
- A36°
- B72°
- C108°
- D144°
Answer: (A) 36°
The four angles of any quadrilateral add to 360°. With ratio 1:2:3:4 there are 10 parts, so the smallest is 36° (the others 72°, 108°, 144°, and opposite angles do add to 180° as a cyclic quadrilateral needs).
Q75.If secA = 13/5 and A is acute, find sinA.
- A5/13
- B12/13
- C13/12
- D13/5
Answer: (B) 12/13
sec A = 13/5 means cos A = 5/13. Then sin A = √(1 − 25/169) = √(144/169) = 12/13.
English Comprehension (Q76–100)
Q76.Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: ABNEGATE
- ADemand
- BAccept
- CRenounce
- DSupport
Answer: (C) Renounce
Abnegate means to renounce or give up (a right, a pleasure, a belief). Demand, accept and support do not carry this meaning.
Q77.Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Move heaven and earth
- ATo relocate frequently
- BTo work tirelessly to achieve something
- CTo stay silent in protest
- DTo follow blindly
Answer: (B) To work tirelessly to achieve something
To move heaven and earth means to make every possible effort to get something done.
Q78.Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Puissant
- AFeeble
- BRobust
- CPowerful
- DStrong
Answer: (A) Feeble
Puissant means powerful or mighty. Its opposite is feeble; robust, powerful and strong are near-synonyms.
Q79.Identify the misspelt word
- ASupersede
- BPerseverance
- CPriviledge
- DAssassinate
Answer: (C) Priviledge
The correct spelling is privilege (no d). Supersede, perseverance and assassinate are spelt correctly.
Q80.Spot the correct spelling of a drug-effect psychology field.
- APsychopharmacology
- BPsychopharmacholog
- CPsychopharmeocology
- DPsychopharmocology
Answer: (A) Psychopharmacology
Psychopharmacology is the study of how drugs affect the mind and behaviour. The other options misspell -pharmacology.
Q81.Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who abstains from all forms of indulgence'.
- AAscetic
- BAgnostic
- CMystic
- DSkeptic
Answer: (A) Ascetic
An ascetic avoids all forms of indulgence, especially for spiritual reasons. An agnostic is unsure whether God exists, a mystic seeks union with the divine, and a skeptic doubts accepted claims.
Q82.Select the correct option: Neither the principal investigator ___ the co-authors anticipated the backlash.
- Anor
- Bor
- Cand
- Dnor did
Answer: (A) nor
Neither is always paired with nor: Neither the principal investigator nor the co-authors anticipated the backlash. The verb anticipated is already present, so nor did would add a second verb.
Q83.Select the correct option: The board will convene next Friday, ___ final approval is expected.
- Aat which
- Bon which
- Cwhen
- Dwhereupon
Answer: (C) when
The blank links a clause to the time next Friday, so when fits: The board will convene next Friday, when final approval is expected. SSC’s key is when; whereupon would mean as a result of which.
Q84.Select the correct option: Nothing short of a paradigm shift will ___ the entrenched bureaucratic inertia.
- Apersuade
- Bdislodge
- Cdissuasion
- Ddisillusion
Answer: (B) dislodge
Inertia is shaken loose or dislodged. Persuade needs a person as object, dissuasion is a noun, and disillusion means to disappoint.
Q85.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Much of what appears to be coordination (1)/ among the regulatory bodies and private stakeholders (2)/ are, in fact, coincidental overlaps (3)/ caused by differing mandates. (4)
- A(1)
- B(2)
- C(3)
- D(4)
Answer: (C) (3)
The subject is Much of what appears to be coordination, an uncountable noun phrase that takes a singular verb. Part (3) should read is, in fact, coincidental overlaps, not are.
Q86.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That the framework lacks provisions for backward compatibility (1)/ is less problematic than the assumption (2)/ that all peripheral institutions will, without coercion, (3)/ adheres to the central directive as framed. (4)
- A(1)
- B(2)
- C(3)
- D(4)
Answer: (D) (4)
After the modal will the base form of the verb is needed: that all peripheral institutions will, without coercion, adhere to the central directive. So part (4), adheres, contains the error.
Q87.Change the following from active to passive: People can seldom access archived manuscripts without clearance.
- AArchived manuscripts can seldom being accessed without clearance.
- BArchived manuscripts could seldom be accessed without clearance.
- CArchived manuscripts can seldom be accessed without clearance.
- DArchived manuscripts are seldom able to be accessed without clearance.
Answer: (C) Archived manuscripts can seldom be accessed without clearance.
Active: People can seldom access archived manuscripts. In the passive the modal stays and is followed by be + past participle: Archived manuscripts can seldom be accessed without clearance. Could changes the tense and can being is ungrammatical.
Q88.Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The prince’s ‘gules’ dominated the family coat of arms. (Highlighted word shown in quotes.)
- AThe tapestry featured gules and argent prominently.
- BThe chef prepared a sauce of deep gules and cumin.
- CThe gules border signified martial lineage.
- DThe herald explained the symbolism of gules to visitors.
Answer: (B) The chef prepared a sauce of deep gules and cumin.
Gules is the heraldic word for red. Sentences (a), (c) and (d) use it in that heraldic sense. SSC’s key marks (b), where gules is used outside heraldry as a colour of a sauce. Note: dictionaries record no separate culinary meaning for gules, so (b) is not a true homonym; we keep SSC’s answer because it is the only option that moves the word out of heraldry.
Q89.Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The package is delivered to the office every morning.
- AThe office delivers the package every morning.
- BSomeone delivers the package to the office every morning.
- CThe office has delivered the package every morning.
- DThe package delivers itself to the office every morning.
Answer: (B) Someone delivers the package to the office every morning.
Passive: The package is delivered to the office every morning (no agent given). In the active a general subject is supplied and the tense stays simple present: Someone delivers the package to the office every morning.
- Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage : The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a catalyst for civic engagement and a conduit for manipulation. Platforms like Twitter, Facebook, and Instagram, once relegated to the domain of personal expression, now serve as powerful instruments of political discourse, enabling citizens to articulate opinions, mobilize for causes, and scrutinize authority in real-time. At its core, democracy thrives on the free flow of information, and social media ostensibly democratizes this process by dismantling traditional gatekeeping. Political leaders communicate directly with constituents, bypassing editorial filters, while grassroots movements harness virality to amplify marginalized voices. During critical events—be it elections, protests, or legislative debates—social media acts as a digital agora, fostering participatory dialogue that was once confined to town halls or print columns. However, this unprecedented openness is double-edged. The same platforms that disseminate truth can also propagate misinformation, polarize public opinion, and algorithmically reinforce ideological silos. Electoral interference through fake accounts, coordinated trolling, and the spread of disinformation campaigns have threatened electoral integrity in several democracies. Moreover, emotionally charged content, optimized for engagement rather than accuracy, often eclipses nuanced debate, reducing political discourse to a cacophony of outrage. The role of social media in democracy, therefore, is contingent not just on its technological architecture, but on the ethical frameworks governing its use. Regulatory oversight, media literacy, and algorithmic transparency are essential to harness its democratic potential while mitigating its subversive tendencies. In essence, social media is neither inherently virtuous nor inherently corrosive—it is a mirror of societal intent. Whether it becomes a pillar of democratic resilience or a tool of populist distortion depends largely on how it is wielded by citizens, institutions, and platforms alike.
Q90.What primary democratic function does social media serve, as per the paragraph?
- APromoting entertainment
- BReplacing newspapers
- CFacilitating free flow of information
- DOrganizing trade unions
Answer: (C) Facilitating free flow of information
The passage says democracy thrives on the free flow of information and that social media democratises this process by dismantling gatekeeping. So its main democratic function is facilitating the free flow of information.
Q91.What makes social media a double-edged tool in democratic societies?
- AIts affordability
- BIts visual design
- CIts ability to spread both truth and misinformation
- DIts international reach
Answer: (C) Its ability to spread both truth and misinformation
The passage calls social media double-edged because the same platforms that disseminate truth can also propagate misinformation.
Q92.According to the paragraph, which element amplifies marginalized voices through social media?
- AEditorial boards
- BGatekeeping journalism
- CViral reach and grassroots mobilization
- DInstitutional press
Answer: (C) Viral reach and grassroots mobilization
It says grassroots movements harness virality to amplify marginalised voices, so viral reach and grassroots mobilisation do this.
Q93.What does the author suggest as a critical solution to social media misuse in democracies?
- AEnhanced meme culture
- BLegalizing all content
- CAlgorithmic transparency and media literacy
- DGlobal censorship policies
Answer: (C) Algorithmic transparency and media literacy
The passage lists regulatory oversight, media literacy and algorithmic transparency as essential to harness social media’s democratic potential. The matching option is algorithmic transparency and media literacy.
Q94.In the author’s view, what determines whether social media supports or undermines democracy?
- APolitical advertisements
- BHow platforms are funded
- CSocietal intent and ethical usage
- DPopularity of influencers
Answer: (C) Societal intent and ethical usage
The author calls social media a mirror of societal intent, and says its role depends on the ethical frameworks governing its use and on how it is wielded. That is societal intent and ethical usage.
Q95.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: No sooner had I reached the station ‘when the train departed’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)
- Athan the train departed
- Bthen the train departed
- Cwhen the train had departed
- Dthan did the train depart
Answer: (A) than the train departed
No sooner is always followed by than: No sooner had I reached the station than the train departed. Option (d) wrongly adds a second inversion.
Q96.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The manager ‘asked to the clerk to submit the report’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)
- Aasked the clerk that submit the report
- Brequested the clerk to submit report
- Casked the clerk to submit the report
- Dtold to the clerk submit report
Answer: (C) asked the clerk to submit the report
Ask takes a direct object without to: The manager asked the clerk to submit the report.
Q97.A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. She said, “I saw him last night.”
- AShe said she had seen him the previous night.
- BShe said she has seen him last night.
- CShe said she was seeing him last night.
- DShe said she had saw him the previous night.
Answer: (A) She said she had seen him the previous night.
In reported speech after said, the past simple saw becomes past perfect had seen, I becomes she, and last night becomes the previous night: She said she had seen him the previous night.
Q98.A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The librarian said that silence must be maintained in the library.
- A“Silence should be maintained in the library,” said the librarian.
- B“You will maintain silence in the library,” the librarian said.
- C“Maintain silence in the library,” said the librarian.
- D“Must you maintain silence in the library?” asked the librarian.
Answer: (C) “Maintain silence in the library,” said the librarian.
The reported sentence gives an order: silence must be maintained. In direct speech an order is usually an imperative: Maintain silence in the library, said the librarian. SSC’s key is this option; (a) weakens must to should, and (b) and (d) change the meaning.
Q99.Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. Consequently, effective communication hinges on more than just the words we choose. 2. Non-verbal cues, such as tone of voice, facial expressions, and body language, can convey more meaning than the verbal message itself. 3. Communication is a complex process involving the exchange of information, ideas, and feelings between individuals. 4. It's often the subtle signals that tell us how a message is truly being received or intended.
- A3, 2, 1, 4
- B2, 4, 1, 3
- C1, 4, 3, 2
- D3, 4, 2, 1
Answer: (A) 3, 2, 1, 4
Sentence 3 introduces communication as a complex process. Sentence 2 says non-verbal cues carry much of the meaning. Sentence 1 (Consequently) concludes that words alone are not enough, and sentence 4 adds that subtle signals show how a message is received. Order: 3, 2, 1, 4.
Q100.Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. A key strategy is to diversify energy sources, transitioning from fossil fuels to renewable alternatives like solar, wind, and geothermal power.2. To mitigate the worst effects of climate change, the global community must drastically reduce its reliance on carbon-intensive energy production.3. This shift not only decreases greenhouse gas emissions but also improves air quality and creates new economic opportunities.4. Additionally, policies that promote energy efficiency in buildings and transportation can further lower overall energy consumption.
- A2, 1, 3, 4
- B1, 2, 3, 4
- C4, 1, 2, 3
- D2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: (A) 2, 1, 3, 4
Sentence 2 states the goal of cutting dependence on carbon-intensive energy. Sentence 1 gives a key strategy (renewables). Sentence 3 (This shift) explains its benefits, and sentence 4 (Additionally) adds energy efficiency. Order: 2, 1, 3, 4.
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