SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 12 September Shift 1 with Answers
- Exam date
- 12 September 2025
- Shift
- Shift 19:00 AM
SSC uploaded the final answer keys with candidates' response sheets for CGL 2025 Tier-I on 09.01.2026. Each paper here is one shift's response sheet, keyed to SSC's marked answers.
Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.
General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q1–25)
- Official paper: SSC CGL 2025 Tier-I, held on 12 September 2025, Shift 1 (9:00 AM). Questions and the answer key are as printed on SSC’s candidate response sheet. Explanations are written by BookOfExams. Marking: +2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one.
Q1.In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Watt : Power :: Pascal : ?
- AEnergy
- BTemperature
- CPressure
- DForce
Answer: (C) Pressure
Unit : quantity it measures. The watt is the SI unit of power; the pascal is the SI unit of pressure (1 Pa = 1 N/m²). Energy is measured in joules, force in newtons and temperature in kelvin.
Q2.In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Mekong : Tibet :: Amazon : ?
- AChile
- BPeru
- CColombia
- DEcuador
Answer: (B) Peru
River : region where it rises. The Mekong rises on the Tibetan Plateau; the Amazon rises in the Andes of Peru. So Amazon : Peru.
Q3.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. CGK, GKO, KOS, OSW, ?
- ASDA
- BKNB
- CSWA
- DKJH
Answer: (C) SWA
Every letter moves 4 places forward: C→G→K→O→S, G→K→O→S→W, K→O→S→W→A (after Z the count wraps to A). Next term: SWA.
Q4.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. MIN, NJM, OKL, PLK, ?
- AQWS
- BHGF
- CQMJ
- DUJH
Answer: (C) QMJ
1st letters: M, N, O, P, Q (+1). 2nd letters: I, J, K, L, M (+1). 3rd letters: N, M, L, K, J (−1). Next term: QMJ.
Q5.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. BRF, EUH, HXJ, KAL, ?
- ANMB
- BNKH
- CNHG
- DNDN
Answer: (D) NDN
1st letters: B, E, H, K, N (+3). 2nd letters: R, U, X, A, D (+3, wrapping after Z). 3rd letters: F, H, J, L, N (+2). Next term: NDN.
Q6.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: WZWT, WVOH, WRGV, WNYJ, ?
- AW J Q X
- BW J Q W
- CW H P X
- DW J P X
Answer: (A) W J Q X
1st letter is always W. 2nd: Z, V, R, N, J (−4). 3rd: W, O, G, Y, Q (−8, wrapping before A). 4th: T, H, V, J, X (−12, wrapping). Next term: WJQX.
Q7.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: MCFI, NEKP, OGPW, PIUD, ?
- AN K Y D
- BQ L Y L
- CQ K Z K
- DQ K Z L
Answer: (C) Q K Z K
1st: M, N, O, P, Q (+1). 2nd: C, E, G, I, K (+2). 3rd: F, K, P, U, Z (+5). 4th: I, P, W, D, K (+7, wrapping after Z). Next term: QKZK.
Q8.What comes next: 3, 12, 7, 16, 11, 20, 15, ?
- A16
- B24
- C14
- D18
Answer: (B) 24
The differences alternate +9 and −5: 3 (+9) 12 (−5) 7 (+9) 16 (−5) 11 (+9) 20 (−5) 15 (+9) 24.
Q9.Each of the letters in the word STUDENT is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is second from the left and the one that is fourth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?
- A17
- B13
- C11
- D15
Answer: (B) 13
STUDENT in alphabetical order: D E N S T T U. Second from the left is E (5th letter of the alphabet); fourth from the right is S (19th). Letters between them: 19 − 5 − 1 = 13.
Q10.Which of the following addresses are identical to each other: 1. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Towers, Surat, 395001 2. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001 3. Arjun M. A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001 4. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001
- A1 and 2
- B1 and 3
- C2 and 4
- D3 and 4
Answer: (C) 2 and 4
Address 1 has ‘Towers’ and address 3 has ‘Arjun M.’, so both differ. Addresses 2 and 4 match exactly, letter for letter.
Q11.Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301 1. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301 2. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector-12, Noida, 201301 3. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida 201301 4. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201302
- A1
- B3
- C2
- D4
Answer: (A) 1
Only address 1 matches. Address 2 has ‘Sector-12’, address 3 drops the comma before the PIN code, and address 4 has PIN 201302. The answer is the option that reads 1.
Q12.Find the option that best completes the analogy. AG : IO :: CM : ?
- AKO
- BKU
- CKS
- DKW
Answer: (B) KU
Each letter moves 8 places forward: A(1)→I(9), G(7)→O(15). Likewise C(3)→K(11), M(13)→U(21). Answer: KU.
Q13.A is facing North. B is seated second to the right of A. Who is sitting immediately to the left of B?
- AThe person seated to the immediate right of A
- BThe person seated opposite to A
- CThe person seated to the immediate left of A
- DCannot be determined
Answer: (A) The person seated to the immediate right of A
Treat it as a row facing North (SSC key). B is second to A’s right, so one person sits between them: A, X, B. Facing North, B’s immediate left is X, who is the person to A’s immediate right.
Q14.In the following question, the second word is related to the first word by a specific pattern of letter transformation. Identify the same pattern and apply it to the third word to find the correct option that completes the analogy. TIME : VJOG :: WORD : ?
- AYPTF
- BYQTG
- CYPSF
- DZPSF
Answer: (A) YPTF
TIME→VJOG uses +2, +1, +2, +2 (T→V, I→J, M→O, E→G). Apply it to WORD: W→Y, O→P, R→T, D→F, giving YPTF.
Q15.In each of the following questions, a specific pattern such as reversal or rearrangement has been applied to the first word to get the second. Apply the same pattern to the third word and find the correct answer from the given options. GNIDAER : READING :: NOITULOS : ?
- ASOLUTION
- BSOLUNOIT
- CNOILOSUT
- DPOLLUTION
Answer: (A) SOLUTION
GNIDAER is READING written backwards. Reversing NOITULOS gives SOLUTION.
Q16.In each of the following questions, the first word is coded to form the second word using a specific rearrangement and/or substitution rule. Apply the same rule to the third word to determine the correct corresponding word from the given alternatives. AYRRJC : CATTLE :: NCPDCAR : ?
- ASUBJECTS
- BNEGLECT
- CPERFECT
- DOPERATE
Answer: (C) PERFECT
Each letter of the code is 2 places before the real letter: A→C, Y→A, R→T, R→T, J→L, C→E gives CATTLE. Moving each letter of NCPDCAR 2 places forward gives PERFECT.
Q17.Identify the odd one: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 20
- A17
- B13
- C20
- D11
Answer: (C) 20
2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 and 17 are all prime numbers. 20 is not prime (20 = 2 × 2 × 5), so it is the odd one.
Q18.Which of the following is the odd one out?
- A2, 3, 5
- B11, 13, 17
- C4, 6, 8
- D7, 19, 23
Answer: (C) 4, 6, 8
(2, 3, 5), (11, 13, 17) and (7, 19, 23) contain only prime numbers. (4, 6, 8) contains only even composite numbers, so it is the odd one out.
Q19.Rani said, “The man in the photo is my mother’s son-in-law.” Who is the man to Rani?
- AHusband
- BFather
- CUncle
- DCousin
Answer: (A) Husband
Rani’s mother’s son-in-law is the husband of one of her mother’s daughters. Among the options only ‘Husband’ fits: the man is Rani’s husband.
Q20.In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
- AK11 : I9 : G7
- BM13 : K11 : I9
- CO15 : M13 : K11
- DN14 : K11 : H8
Answer: (D) N14 : K11 : H8
In the first three groups the letter and number move back by 2 each time (K11, I9, G7; M13, K11, I9; O15, M13, K11), and each number equals its letter’s position. N14 : K11 : H8 moves back by 3, so it is the odd one.
Q21.In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
- AA1@ : B2# : C3$
- BD4% : E5^ : F6&
- CG7* : H8( : I9)
- DJ10_ : K11@ : L12@
Answer: (D) J10_ : K11@ : L12@
Letters and numbers rise by 1 in every group. The symbols in the first three groups are three consecutive keyboard symbols (@ # $, % ^ &, * ( ) from Shift + 2 onwards). In J10_ : K11@ : L12@ the symbol @ repeats, so this group breaks the pattern.
Q22.Pointing to a man, a woman said, “His mother is the only daughter of my father.” How is the man related to the woman?
- ASon
- BNephew
- CCousin
- DGrandson
Answer: (A) Son
The only daughter of the woman’s father is the woman herself. So the man’s mother is the woman, and he is her son.
Q23.Pointing to a woman, John says, “She is the wife of my uncle’s only son.” How is the woman related to John?
- ASister
- BCousin
- CSister-in-law
- DNiece
Answer: (C) Sister-in-law
John’s uncle’s only son is John’s cousin, and the woman is that cousin’s wife. SSC’s key marks ‘Sister-in-law’, the everyday term for her (‘cousin-in-law’ is not offered).
Q24.A man said, “My mother’s husband's only son is the father of your sister’s brother.” How is the man related to you?
- AUncle
- BFather
- CGrandfather
- DBrother
Answer: (B) Father
The man’s mother’s husband’s only son is the man himself. Your sister’s brother is you, so the man is your father.
Q25.If # = ×, @ = −, ＄ = +, then evaluate: 9 # 2 @ 3 ＄ 1
- A18
- B14
- C16
- D17
Answer: (C) 16
Replace the symbols: 9 × 2 − 3 + 1 = 18 − 3 + 1 = 16.
General Awareness (Q26–50)
Q26.Which of the following features distinguishes the Elephanta Caves from other rock-cut sites of early India?
- AThey are primarily Buddhist caves with large stupas.
- BThe caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.
- CThey contain a mix of Jain and Vaishnavite depictions in pillar halls.
- DThe caves are entirely monolithic structures from the Mauryan period.
Answer: (B) The caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.
The Elephanta Caves near Mumbai (5th–6th century, a UNESCO World Heritage Site) are dedicated to Shiva. Their deep-cut sculpture, such as the Trimurti (Sadashiva), uses light and shadow for effect. They are not Buddhist stupa caves, not Jain-Vaishnava and not Mauryan.
Q27.Read the statements about the Goncha Festival of Bastar: 1.) Tupki, a mock gun made of bamboo, uses Goncha fruit as bullets. 2.) The chariot procession was started by Chalukya rulers. 3.) Rath Yatra begins on Ashadh Shukla Dashmi and ends on Dutiya. Which of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly 1 and 2
- BOnly 2 and 3
- COnly 1 and 3
- D1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2
Statement 1 is correct: the bamboo mock gun (tupki) fires Goncha fruits. Statement 2 is correct: the chariot procession was started by the Chalukya (Kakatiya) rulers of Bastar under Raja Purushottam Dev. Statement 3 is wrong: the Rath Yatra runs from Ashadh Shukla Dwitiya (Dutiya) to Dashmi, not the other way round. Answer: only 1 and 2.
Q28.Fill in the blanks: In Carnatic music, a laghu with five beats is known as ____ jaati.
- ATishra
- BChaturashra
- CKhanda
- DMishra
Answer: (C) Khanda
In Carnatic tala, the jaati of a laghu sets its beat count: Tishra 3, Chaturashra 4, Khanda 5, Mishra 7, Sankeerna 9. A five-beat laghu is Khanda jaati.
Q29.Which of the following statements about Judo is correct?
- AJudo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.
- BIndia’s first National Judo Championship was held in 1970 at Delhi University.
- CKalpana Devi won gold at the 2010 Judo World Cup.
- DJudo became an Olympic sport in 1965.
Answer: (A) Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.
Judo was founded by Jigoro Kano in Japan in 1882 (Kodokan). It entered the Olympics in 1964 (Tokyo), not 1965.
Q30.Where and when will the 59th National Cross Country Championships – 2025 be held?
- A10th January 2025, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
- B12th January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh
- C15th January 2025, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
- D12th January 2025, Jaipur, Rajasthan
Answer: (B) 12th January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh
The 59th National Cross Country Championships were held on 12 January 2025 at the Army Golf Course, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh, under the Athletics Federation of India.
Q31.What is the core structural focus of the 2024 India–UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) within India’s international investment strategy?
- AProposes joint sovereign funds and links INR swap with UAE banks.
- BFocuses on pre-establishment rights and UAE-based arbitration.
- CAssures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.
- DAims at GCC-wide tax regulation under India-led digital framework.
Answer: (C) Assures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.
The India–UAE BIT was signed on 13 February 2024 and came into force on 31 August 2024. The government said it boosts investor confidence by assuring a minimum standard of treatment and national treatment for investments after they are established.
Q32.Fill in the blanks: The Santosh Trophy 2022–23 final was uniquely held in _____, where Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to win the title after 54 years.
- ADubai
- BRiyadh
- CDoha
- DMuscat
Answer: (B) Riyadh
The 76th Santosh Trophy (2022–23) semi-finals and final were played at the King Fahd International Stadium in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, the first time outside India. Karnataka beat Meghalaya 3–2 for their first title in 54 years.
Q33.Which of the following statements best captures the essence of “Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought” by Kavitha Iyer?
- AA study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.
- BA fictional story about a family in a drought-hit area.
- CA history of monsoon patterns and ancient agriculture in India.
- DA colonial-era policy analysis of water management.
Answer: (A) A study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.
Kavitha Iyer’s ‘Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought’ (2021) is non-fiction reportage on how drought affects people, farming and ecology in India. It is not a novel, a monsoon history or a colonial policy study.
Q34.Consider the following statements about glacial landforms: Statement 1: Hanging valleys are often found opening into main glacial valleys at higher elevations. Statement 2: Spurs of such hanging valleys are frequently truncated into triangular facets. Which of the following Statements is/are Correct?
- AOnly 1
- BOnly 2
- C1 and 2 are correct
- DNeither 1 nor 2 are correct
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 are correct
Tributary glaciers erode less than the main glacier, so their valleys are left high above the main trough as hanging valleys. The main glacier also cuts off the valley spurs, leaving truncated spurs with triangular facets. SSC’s key accepts both statements.
Q35.What is the primary function of the Crew Escape System (CES) on ISRO’s Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) rocket?
- ATo guide the crew module into its designated Low Earth Orbit.
- BTo eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.
- CTo assist in docking the crew module with a space station.
- DTo provide thermal shielding during re-entry into Earth’s atmosphere.
Answer: (B) To eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.
The Crew Escape System on the human-rated LVM3 (Gaganyaan) pulls the crew module away to safety if something goes wrong during launch or ascent.
Q36.Which of the following statements about Justice Sanjiv Khanna is/are true? 1. He is the 51st Chief Justice of India 2. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud 3. He served as CJI from 2023
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2, and 3 all are true
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Justice Sanjiv Khanna became the 51st Chief Justice of India on 11 November 2024, succeeding Justice D.Y. Chandrachud. He did not serve as CJI from 2023, so only statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q37.Which of the following objectives are part of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000? 1. Providing free and compulsory education up to 14 years of age 2. Increasing fertility rate to ensure demographic dividend 3. Reducing infant mortality rate below 30 per 1000 live births 4. Promoting delayed marriage for girls
- AOnly 1 and 2 are correct
- BOnly 1 and 3 are correct
- COnly 1, 3 and 4 are correct
- D1,2,3 and 4 all are correct
Answer: (C) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
NPP 2000 aims for free and compulsory school education up to age 14, an infant mortality rate below 30 per 1000 live births, and delayed marriage for girls (not before 18, preferably after 20). It aims to bring fertility down to replacement level, not raise it. Answer: 1, 3 and 4.
Q38.Which pathway in cellular respiration generates the most ATP?
- AGlycolysis
- BKrebs cycle
- CElectron transport chain
- DFermentation
Answer: (C) Electron transport chain
The electron transport chain with oxidative phosphorylation makes most of the ATP (about 32–34 of roughly 36–38 per glucose). Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle give only 2 ATP each directly.
Q39.Arrange the following events in chronological order: a. Eastern Zonal Council meeting 2022 b. States Reorganisation Act passed c. First Central Zonal Council meeting
- Ab-c-a
- Bc-b-a
- Ca-b-c
- Db-a-c
Answer: (A) b-c-a
The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 and set up the Zonal Councils. The Central Zonal Council first met on 1 May 1957 at Lucknow. The Eastern Zonal Council meeting came in 2022. Order: b-c-a.
Q40.Which of the following most accurately describes the legal character of the right to property under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution?
- AIt is a fundamental right that guarantees compensation for all property acquisitions.
- BIt allows the State to deprive a person of property by any law, even without due process.
- CIt is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.
- DIt permits citizens to claim property protection under Article 32 before the Supreme Court.
Answer: (C) It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.
After the 44th Amendment (1978), property is not a fundamental right. Article 300A makes it a constitutional (legal) right: no person can be deprived of property save by authority of law. It cannot be enforced under Article 32.
Q41.For a rigid body, the angular velocity of any particle about a given axis of rotation is:
- AProportional to its distance from the axis
- BThe same for all particles
- CInversely proportional to its distance from the axis
- DAlways zero
Answer: (B) The same for all particles
In a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis, every particle turns through the same angle in the same time, so all have the same angular velocity. Their linear speeds differ (v = ωr).
Q42.The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam(BSA) places emphasis on the use of technology to ensure the authenticity of evidence. This is particularly relevant for:
- APhysical exhibits from crime scenes.
- BHand-written diaries.
- CDigital and electronic evidence.
- DOral confessions.
Answer: (C) Digital and electronic evidence.
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 widens the role of electronic records and digital evidence and adds rules to establish their authenticity. Technology matters most for digital and electronic evidence.
Q43.Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A) : The One Nation One Ration Card ensures portability of food grains. Reason (R) : It uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication.
- ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
- BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
- CA is true, but R is false
- DA is false, but R is true
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
One Nation One Ration Card lets beneficiaries draw their ration from any fair price shop in India (portability). This works because beneficiaries are verified by Aadhaar-based biometric authentication on ePoS devices, so R correctly explains A.
Q44.Cheraw, the bamboo dance performed using crossed bamboo sticks, is a folk dance of which state?
- AMizoram
- BMeghalaya
- CArunachal Pradesh
- DSikkim
Answer: (A) Mizoram
Cheraw, the bamboo dance in which dancers step between clapping crossed bamboo poles, is a traditional dance of Mizoram.
Q45.What is a key factor assessed in the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking 2025?
- AEconomic Stability
- BCultural Influence
- CDefense Budget
- DHealthcare Spending
Answer: (C) Defense Budget
The Global Firepower index ranks military strength on 60+ factors, including manpower, equipment, logistics, finances and defence budget. Cultural influence and healthcare spending are not among them.
Q46.Which of the following correctly describes cooperative sector industries?
- AOwned and operated by central government agencies.
- BOperated solely for export purposes.
- COwned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses
- DMaintained by foreign companies with Indian partnerships.
Answer: (C) Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses
Cooperative sector industries are owned and run by producers, suppliers or workers (for example Amul, sugar cooperatives), who share the profits and losses.
Q47.Education is now placed under which list after the 42nd Amendment?
- AUnion List
- BState List
- CConcurrent List
- DJudicial List
Answer: (C) Concurrent List
The 42nd Amendment (1976) moved education from the State List to the Concurrent List, so both the Centre and the states can legislate on it.
Q48.What is the main objective of the National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) launched in 2024?
- ATo set emission trading targets
- BTo regulate groundwater quality
- CTo deliver sector-specific climate information services
- DTo mandate carbon offsetting in the private sector
Answer: (C) To deliver sector-specific climate information services
IMD launched the National Framework for Climate Services on 15 January 2024, its 150th foundation day. Modelled on WMO’s Global Framework, it aims to produce and deliver tailored climate information for sectors such as agriculture, water, health, energy and disaster management.
Q49.Argon is produced in Earth’s crust via?
- ADecay of K-40
- BVolcanoes
- CPhotosynthesis
- DCosmic rays
Answer: (A) Decay of K-40
Most argon in Earth’s crust and atmosphere is argon-40, formed by the radioactive decay of potassium-40 in rocks.
Q50.Which of the following is true about Fundamental Rights and DPSPs?
- ABoth are justiciable and enforceable by courts
- BDPSPs override Fundamental Rights when in conflict
- CFundamental Rights are justiciable, but DPSPs are not
- DDPSPs are guaranteed by the Constitution; Fundamental Rights are optional
Answer: (C) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, but DPSPs are not
Fundamental Rights (Part III) can be enforced in courts. Directive Principles (Part IV) cannot be enforced in courts (Article 37), though they guide policy.
Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–75)
Q51.Arrange the fractions 5/9, 4/7, 3/5, and, 2/3 in ascending order.
- A3/5, 4/7, 2/3, 5/9
- B5/9, 4/7, 3/5, 2/3
- C2/3, 3/5, 4/7, 5/9
- D4/7, 5/9, 2/3, 3/5
Answer: (B) 5/9, 4/7, 3/5, 2/3
Decimal values: 5/9 = 0.556, 4/7 = 0.571, 3/5 = 0.600, 2/3 = 0.667. Ascending order: 5/9, 4/7, 3/5, 2/3.
Q52.Simplify: (2½ + 3.6) − 1.9
- A4.2
- B5.2
- C6.2
- D7.2
Answer: (A) 4.2
2½ = 2.5. (2.5 + 3.6) − 1.9 = 6.1 − 1.9 = 4.2.
Q53.Evaluate: 7¼ − [5/6 ÷ {1/3 − (1/2 × (3/4 − 1/4))}]
- A−3¼
- B3¼
- C−2¾
- D2¾
Answer: (C) −2¾
Innermost: 3/4 − 1/4 = 1/2. Then 1/2 × 1/2 = 1/4. Next 1/3 − 1/4 = 1/12. Then 5/6 ÷ 1/12 = 10. Finally 7¼ − 10 = −2¾.
Q54.From a sample of 200 software engineers, determine the ratio of those proficient in Python to those proficient in Java using the given information: Category | Number Proficient in Python and Java | 50 Proficient in Python only | 70 Proficient in Java only | 60 Proficient in neither language | 20
- A11:12
- B12:11
- C7:6
- D6:7
Answer: (B) 12:11
Python: 50 (both) + 70 (only Python) = 120. Java: 50 + 60 = 110. Ratio 120 : 110 = 12 : 11.
Q55.Arvind started a business by investing ₹80,000. After 4 months, Bhavin joined with ₹1,20,000. At the end of 8 months from the start, Chandan joined with ₹1,60,000. If the total profit is ₹1,05,000 at the end of the year, find the share of Chandan.
- A₹26,500
- B₹26,000
- C₹26,200
- D₹26,250
Answer: (D) ₹26,250
Capital × months: Arvind 80,000 × 12 = 9,60,000; Bhavin 1,20,000 × 8 = 9,60,000; Chandan 1,60,000 × 4 = 6,40,000. Ratio 3 : 3 : 2. Chandan’s share = 2/8 × 1,05,000 = ₹26,250.
Q56.A and B start a business. A invests ₹80,000 for 9 months, B invests ₹1,20,000 for 6 months. What is B’s share of a ₹45,000 profit?
- A₹26,500
- B₹28,000
- C₹36,000
- D₹22,500
Answer: (D) ₹22,500
A: 80,000 × 9 = 7,20,000. B: 1,20,000 × 6 = 7,20,000. Ratio 1 : 1, so B gets half of ₹45,000 = ₹22,500.
Q57.What is the average of all integers between 100 and 250 that are exactly divisible by 11?
- A176
- B186
- C196
- D146
Answer: (A) 176
Multiples of 11 between 100 and 250 run from 110 to 242 (13 terms, an arithmetic progression). Average = (110 + 242)/2 = 176.
Q58.The average of 15 numbers is 80. The average of the first 6 numbers is 72. The average of the next 6 numbers is 25% more than the average of the first 6 numbers. The 13th number is 8 more than the 15th number, and the 14th number is 10 less than the 15th number. What is the average of the 13th and 14th numbers?
- A70.89
- B85
- C75.67
- D80.65
Answer: (C) 75.67
Total = 15 × 80 = 1200. First 6 = 6 × 72 = 432. Next 6 average = 72 × 1.25 = 90, sum 540. Last three sum = 1200 − 432 − 540 = 228. With the 15th number = x: (x + 8) + (x − 10) + x = 228, so x = 230/3. 13th + 14th = 2x − 2 = 454/3, average = 227/3 ≈ 75.67.
Q59.A landlord bought a flat for ₹8,00,000. He wants to earn a 9% annual return on his investment after paying ₹2,000 per month for maintenance. What should be the monthly rent he charges?
- A₹7,000
- B₹7,500
- C₹8,000
- D₹8,500
Answer: (C) ₹8,000
Required yearly return = 9% of 8,00,000 = ₹72,000. Add yearly maintenance 2,000 × 12 = ₹24,000. Rent per year = ₹96,000, so monthly rent = ₹8,000.
Q60.An amount is said to double in 5 years with compound interest. How many years will it take for the amount to grow to 8 times its original value?
- A15
- B16
- C17
- D18
Answer: (A) 15
It doubles every 5 years at compound interest. 8 times = 2 × 2 × 2, three doublings, so 3 × 5 = 15 years.
Q61.A sum becomes ₹6,600 in 2 years and ₹7,920 in 3 years at compound interest. What is the original principal?
- A₹4,000.33
- B₹5,583.33
- C₹4,583.33
- D₹6,583.33
Answer: (C) ₹4,583.33
One year’s growth: 7920/6600 = 1.2, so the rate is 20%. Principal = 6600 ÷ 1.2² = 6600 ÷ 1.44 = ₹4,583.33.
Q62.Suman purchased 25 liters of milk at ₹45 per liter and another 15 liters of milk at ₹50 per liter. She combined both quantities and then sold the entire mixture at ₹48 per liter. What was her total profit or loss?
- ALoss of ₹45
- BProfit of ₹45
- CProfit of ₹90
- DLoss of ₹90
Answer: (B) Profit of ₹45
Cost = 25 × 45 + 15 × 50 = 1125 + 750 = ₹1,875. Sale = 40 × 48 = ₹1,920. Profit = ₹45.
Q63.A toy manufacturer produced 1200 toy cars at a total cost of ₹90,000. He donated 200 cars to a charity event. For the rest, he announced a 10% discount on the market price of ₹120 per car. He also offered 2 toy cars free for every 8 toy cars purchased. If all 1200 toy cars were distributed, what is his overall gain or loss percentage?
- A4% loss
- B4% profit
- C5% loss
- D5% profit
Answer: (A) 4% loss
After donating 200 cars, 1000 cars go out under the offer. With 2 free for every 8 bought, only 800 are paid for. Price per car = 120 × 0.9 = ₹108. Revenue = 800 × 108 = ₹86,400 against cost ₹90,000. Loss = 3,600, which is 4% of 90,000.
Q64.A retailer marks an air conditioner 80% above its cost price. He offers a first discount of 25% on the marked price. During a festive offer, an additional discount of 10% is applied on the already discounted price. If the final selling price is ₹15,552, what is the approximate cost price of the air conditioner?
- A₹9,000
- B₹9,200
- C₹12,800
- D₹10,000
Answer: (C) ₹12,800
SP = CP × 1.8 × 0.75 × 0.9 = 1.215 × CP. CP = 15,552 ÷ 1.215 = ₹12,800.
Q65.A 40-liter mixture contains juice and water in the ratio 5:3. How much water (in liters) must be added to this mixture to change the ratio of juice to water to 2:3?
- A15.5 litres
- B22.5 litres
- C25 litres
- D30 litres
Answer: (B) 22.5 litres
Juice = 5/8 × 40 = 25 L, water = 15 L. For juice : water = 2 : 3, water must be 25 × 3/2 = 37.5 L. Water to add = 37.5 − 15 = 22.5 litres.
Q66.A is able to complete a task in 15 days, while B takes 20 days to finish the same task. If they collaborate and work together for 4 days, what fraction of the work will still remain?
- A1/4
- B7/15
- C8/15
- D11/15
Answer: (C) 8/15
One day together: 1/15 + 1/20 = 7/60. In 4 days: 28/60 = 7/15. Work left = 1 − 7/15 = 8/15.
Q67.Two oils priced at ₹90 per kg and ₹150 per kg are blended and sold at ₹144 per kg, achieving a profit margin of 20%. What is the ratio of the two oils in the mixture?
- A1 : 1
- B2 : 1
- C3 : 2
- D4 : 1
Answer: (A) 1 : 1
Cost price of the mixture = 144 ÷ 1.2 = ₹120 per kg. By alligation, (150 − 120) : (120 − 90) = 30 : 30 = 1 : 1.
Q68.Three pipes, A, B, and C are capable of filling a tank in 6, 8, and 12 hours, respectively. When all three pipes are opened together, they operate for 2 hours before pipe C is closed. How much additional time will it take to completely fill the tank after that?
- A6/7 hours
- B2/6 hours
- C3/5 hours
- D9/2 hours
Answer: (A) 6/7 hours
All three together fill 1/6 + 1/8 + 1/12 = 9/24 = 3/8 per hour, so in 2 hours 3/4 is full. A and B then fill 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24 per hour. Time for the remaining 1/4 = (1/4) ÷ (7/24) = 6/7 hour.
Q69.A bullet train covers a fixed distance in 30 minutes at an average speed of 240 km/h. Due to track maintenance, it needs to be diverted, increasing the distance by 20%. If the train needs to arrive at its destination on time (i.e., in 30 minutes), what should its new average speed be in km/h?
- A280 km/h
- B300 km/h
- C288 km/h
- D320 km/h
Answer: (C) 288 km/h
Distance = 240 × 1/2 = 120 km. New distance = 120 × 1.2 = 144 km. Speed needed for 30 minutes = 144 ÷ 0.5 = 288 km/h.
Q70.Two cars, X and Y, start from points 360 km apart and travel at constant speeds. If they move towards each other, they meet in 4 hours. If they move in the same direction, they meet in 12 hours. What is the speed of car X? (Assume X is the faster car).
- A60 km/h
- B75 km/h
- C45 km/h
- D90 km/h
Answer: (A) 60 km/h
Towards each other: sum of speeds = 360/4 = 90 km/h. Same direction: difference = 360/12 = 30 km/h. Faster car X = (90 + 30)/2 = 60 km/h.
Q71.A circular pizza having a radius of 21 cm. If 75% of it is eaten, what is the area of pizza remaining?
- A173.25 cm²
- B346.36 cm²
- C432.25 cm²
- D115.5 cm²
Answer: (B) 346.36 cm²
Remaining = 25% of πr² = 0.25 × π × 441. With π = 3.1416 this is about 346.36 cm², the marked option. (With π = 22/7 it is 346.5 cm², which is still closest to this option.)
Q72.A ring-shaped disc has outer radius 10 cm and inner radius 7 cm. What is the approximate ratio of the ring’s area to the whole outer circle?
- A1:2
- B2:3
- C3:4
- D4:5
Answer: (A) 1:2
Ring area / outer circle = π(10² − 7²) / π(10²) = 51/100, which is about 1 : 2.
Q73.A bicycle wheel having a radius of 35 cm. What percentage of its circumference is covered in a quarter turn? (Use π = 22/7)
- A15%
- B25%
- C30%
- D35%
Answer: (B) 25%
A full turn covers the whole circumference, so a quarter turn covers 1/4 of it, which is 25%. The radius is not needed.
Q74.The line y = mx + 5 passes through (1,8). Find m.
- A5
- B4
- C3
- D2
Answer: (C) 3
Put (1, 8) into y = mx + 5: 8 = m + 5, so m = 3.
Q75.31³ + 18³−37³ + 210 is equal to:
- A−36810
- B−14820
- C−45670
- D−23450
Answer: (B) −14820
31³ = 29,791, 18³ = 5,832, 37³ = 50,653. So 29,791 + 5,832 − 50,653 + 210 = −14,820.
English Comprehension (Q76–100)
Q76.Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PERFIDIOUS
- AHonest
- BFaithful
- CTreacherous
- DLoyal
Answer: (C) Treacherous
Perfidious means deceitful and untrustworthy, so its synonym is ‘treacherous’. Honest, faithful and loyal are opposites.
Q77.Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Hobson’s choice
- AA dilemma between two evils
- BA free and fair decision
- CNo real choice at all
- DA selection made under duress
Answer: (C) No real choice at all
Hobson’s choice is a choice where only one option is really on offer (take it or leave it), so it is no real choice at all.
Q78.Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Perfidious
- ABetraying
- BFaithless
- CLoyal
- DTreacherous
Answer: (C) Loyal
Perfidious means disloyal or treacherous, so its antonym is ‘loyal’. Betraying, faithless and treacherous are synonyms.
Q79.Identify the misspelt word
- AVicereine
- BFloccinaucinihilipilification
- CDefenestrate
- DQuintessance
Answer: (D) Quintessance
The correct spelling is ‘quintessence’. Vicereine, floccinaucinihilipilification and defenestrate are spelt correctly.
Q80.Spot the correct spelling of a CSF-shunt procedure.
- AVentriculoperitoneal
- BVentriculoperitonal
- CVentriculaperitoneal
- DVentriculoperetoneal
Answer: (A) Ventriculoperitoneal
The shunt that drains cerebrospinal fluid from the brain’s ventricles to the peritoneal cavity is a ‘ventriculoperitoneal’ shunt (ventriculo + peritoneal).
Q81.Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'An official reprimand or strong criticism'.
- AAccusation
- BDenunciation
- CCensure
- DIndictment
Answer: (C) Censure
‘Censure’ is an official reprimand or strong formal criticism. An accusation or indictment charges someone with wrongdoing, and denunciation is public condemnation.
Q82.Select the correct option: The startup scaled so rapidly that its infrastructure could ___ keep pace.
- Abarely
- Bmerely
- Cscarcely
- Dall but
Answer: (A) barely
‘Could barely keep pace’ means it only just managed to keep up, which fits a startup growing very fast. SSC’s key marks ‘barely’. ‘Merely’ and ‘all but’ do not fit; note that ‘scarcely’ has a similar sense, but the official key accepts only ‘barely’.
Q83.Select the correct option: Rare though the phenomenon is, it can occur ___ prolonged drought conditions.
- Atowards
- Bamid
- Camong
- Dunder
Answer: (D) under
We say something happens ‘under’ certain conditions, so ‘under prolonged drought conditions’ is the correct choice as per SSC’s key.
Q84.Select the correct option: While the proposal appeared pragmatic on paper, its implementation proved ___ complicated than expected.
- Aless
- Bmore
- Cmuch
- Drather
Answer: (B) more
The sentence contrasts appearance with reality, and the comparative ‘than expected’ needs ‘more complicated’. ‘Much’ and ‘rather’ cannot pair with ‘than’ here, and ‘less’ breaks the contrast with ‘appeared pragmatic’.
Q85.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That the report failed to address the root causes (1)/ of the community unrest were surprising (2)/ given the exhaustive data (3)/ compiled over several months. (4)
- A(1)
- B(2)
- C(3)
- D(4)
Answer: (B) (2)
The subject is the noun clause ‘That the report failed to address the root causes of the community unrest’. A noun clause is singular, so it should be ‘was surprising’, not ‘were surprising’. The error is in part (2).
Q86.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: What renders the draft legislation particularly contentious is not its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se, (1)/ but that it presumes, without empirical substantiation, (2)/ a fiscal equivalence among states whose developmental baselines are (3)/ incommensurable by any normative metric. (4)
- A(1)
- B(2)
- C(3)
- D(4)
Answer: (B) (2)
‘Not … but …’ must join matching parts. Part (1) has a noun phrase (‘its proposed realignment’), but part (2) switches to a clause (‘that it presumes’). SSC’s key marks part (2) as the error; it should be a matching phrase, for example ‘but its presumption, without empirical substantiation, of’.
Q87.Change the following from active to passive: They have been neglecting maintenance of the archives for years.
- AMaintenance of the archives had been neglected by them for years.
- BMaintenance of the archives is being neglected by them for years.
- CMaintenance of the archives was being neglected by them for years.
- DMaintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.
Answer: (D) Maintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.
Active present perfect continuous (have been neglecting) becomes ‘has/have been being + past participle’ in the passive. The object ‘maintenance’ is singular, so: Maintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.
Q88.Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The choir began the ‘introit’ at the priest’s signal. (Highlighted word shown in quotes.)
- AThe child sang the introit during the intermission.
- BThe introit was replaced by an organ improvisation.
- CThe missal included Latin text for the introit.
- DThe cantor rehearsed the Sunday introit.
Answer: (A) The child sang the introit during the intermission.
SSC’s key marks the first sentence. Note: all four sentences use ‘introit’ in the same sense (the opening chant of a church service), so none is strictly a homonym. The key appears to pick the one sentence set outside the service (‘during the intermission’). Remember: homonyms are words that look or sound the same but differ in meaning.
Q89.Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: It was being suggested by multiple sources that the operation had been compromised internally.
- AMultiple sources suggested the operation was compromised internally.
- BThe operation was compromised, multiple sources suggested.
- CThe sources were suggesting an operation compromise.
- DThe operation had compromised multiple internal sources.
Answer: (A) Multiple sources suggested the operation was compromised internally.
Make the agent (multiple sources) the subject: Multiple sources suggested the operation was compromised internally. This keeps the meaning; the other options change who did what or drop the internal compromise.
- Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured through degrees, academic accolades, and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through systematic curricula, institutionalized assessment, and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience, introspection, and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritize rote memorization and standardized testing over critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem-solving but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded—ending with formal schooling or academic milestones—wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is inconvenient.
Q90.According to the passage, how is wisdom primarily acquired?
- AThrough textbooks
- BThrough emotional detachment
- CThrough experience and reflection
- DThrough algorithmic thinking
Answer: (C) Through experience and reflection
The passage says wisdom is ‘enriched by experience, introspection’ and ‘earned through trial, failure, reflection’. So it is acquired through experience and reflection.
Q91.What does the author mean by “wisdom enriches the soul”?
- AIt enhances academic success
- BIt fosters deeper moral insight
- CIt improves verbal expression
- DIt sharpens mathematical skills
Answer: (B) It fosters deeper moral insight
Education equips the mind, but wisdom enriches the soul. The passage links wisdom to ethical, empathetic, prudent judgement, which is deeper moral insight.
Q92.Who, according to the author, can be wise despite lacking formal education?
- AScientists
- BSchool children
- CElders and artisans
- DTechnocrats
Answer: (C) Elders and artisans
The passage names ‘farmers, artisans, elders’ as wise people who may lack formal education. Of the options, ‘Elders and artisans’ matches.
Q93.What is the central contrast drawn in the passage?
- AEducation vs. career
- BIntelligence vs. memory
- CReading vs. writing
- DFormal learning vs. applied wisdom
Answer: (D) Formal learning vs. applied wisdom
The passage contrasts formal education (degrees, curricula, tests) with wisdom applied to real life. So the central contrast is formal learning vs. applied wisdom.
Q94.According to the author, why has the gap between education and wisdom widened in recent times?
- ADue to overuse of social media
- BBecause wisdom is no longer valued
- CBecause of rote learning and algorithmic methods
- DBecause people stop learning after school
Answer: (C) Because of rote learning and algorithmic methods
The passage says that in an era of information overload and algorithmic thinking, institutions favour rote memorisation and standardised testing. That is why the gap has widened.
Q95.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She has the reputation ‘to be a kind woman’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)
- Ato have kindness
- Bof being a kind woman
- Cof being the kind woman
- Dto be kind-hearted
Answer: (B) of being a kind woman
‘Reputation’ takes ‘of + gerund’: ‘the reputation of being a kind woman’. Option 3 wrongly uses ‘the’ before ‘kind woman’.
Q96.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The doctor advised him ‘to avoid eating sweets and doing exercise regularly’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)
- Aavoiding sweets and doing regular exercise
- Bto avoid sweets and to exercises regularly
- Cto avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly
- Dto not eat sweets and do exercises
Answer: (C) to avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly
‘Advise someone to do’ needs parallel infinitives: ‘to avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly’. The original mixes ‘to avoid’ with ‘doing’, and ‘to exercises’ is ungrammatical.
Q97.A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He asked me, “Have you done your homework?”
- AHe asked me if I had done my homework.
- BHe asked me have I done my homework.
- CHe asked me whether I have done my homework.
- DHe asked me whether had I done my homework.
Answer: (A) He asked me if I had done my homework.
A yes/no question is reported with ‘if/whether’, statement word order, and the tense moves back: ‘Have you done’ becomes ‘if I had done’. So: He asked me if I had done my homework.
Q98.A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. He said that he would join the meeting after lunch.
- A“I will join the meeting after lunch,” he said.
- B“I would join the meeting after lunch,” he said.
- C“I shall join the meeting after lunch,” he said.
- D“I can join the meeting after lunch,” he said.
Answer: (A) “I will join the meeting after lunch,” he said.
In reported speech, ‘would’ was the backshift of ‘will’, and ‘he’ refers to the speaker. Direct speech: “I will join the meeting after lunch,” he said.
Q99.Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage: 1. A media strategy was framed based on outreach results. 2. Demographic metrics were tracked from campaign dashboards. 3. User interactions were collected across platforms. 4. Analysts segmented users by age and behavior.
- A3-2-4-1
- B2-3-1-4
- C3-1-4-2
- D4-1-2-3
Answer: (A) 3-2-4-1
Logical flow of a data-led campaign: collect user interactions (3), track demographic metrics from dashboards (2), segment users by age and behaviour (4), then frame the media strategy (1). Order 3-2-4-1.
Q100.Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. It is a process that involves the systematic and objective investigation of a subject to discover new facts or to confirm existing ones. 2. Research is a foundational pillar of academic and scientific progress. 3. This can be either theoretical, aiming to expand knowledge, or applied, seeking to solve a practical problem. 4. The findings of this investigation are then documented and peer-reviewed to ensure validity and credibility.
- A2, 1, 3, 4
- B1, 2, 4, 3
- C4, 3, 2, 1
- D3, 4, 1, 2
Answer: (A) 2, 1, 3, 4
Sentence 2 introduces research, 1 defines it as a process, 3 gives its types (theoretical or applied), and 4 ends with how its findings are documented and peer-reviewed. Order 2, 1, 3, 4.
Practise this paper under exam conditions
100 questions, 60-minute timer, negative marking and a score report.
Attempt onlineAttempt one section of this paper
More SSC CGL papers with answers
- SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 14 September Shift 1
- SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 13 September Shift 2
- SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 12 September Shift 2
- SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 12 September Shift 3