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Official PaperTier 1100 Questions · 60 Min

SSC CGL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 13 September Shift 2 with Answers

Exam date
13 September 2025
Shift
Shift 212:30 PM

SSC uploaded the final answer keys with candidates' response sheets for CGL 2025 Tier-I on 09.01.2026. Each paper here is one shift's response sheet, keyed to SSC's marked answers.

Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.

General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q1–25)

  1. Official paper: SSC CGL 2025 Tier-I, held on 13 September 2025, Shift 2 (12:30 PM). Questions and the answer key are as printed on SSC’s candidate response sheet. Explanations are written by BookOfExams. Marking: +2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one.

    Q1.In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Architect : Design :: Chef : ?

    • ACook
    • BServe
    • CRecipe
    • DFood

    Answer: (D) Food

    An architect produces a design. A chef produces food. “Cook” is the chef's action and “recipe” is a plan, but the product, as with design, is food.

  2. Q2.In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives Utilitarianism : Consequence :: Deontology : ?

    • AVirtue
    • BDuty
    • CIntention
    • DValue

    Answer: (B) Duty

    Utilitarianism judges an act by its consequences. Deontology judges it by duty, i.e. whether the act follows a moral rule.

  3. Q3.Select the letters from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. K, M, O, ? , S, U, ? , Y

    • AQ, X
    • BQ, W
    • CP, W
    • DR, W

    Answer: (B) Q, W

    The letters skip one each time: K, M, O, Q, S, U, W, Y. The blanks are Q and W.

  4. Q4.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. PQR, STU, VWX, ?

    • AYZD
    • BYVA
    • CYZA
    • DDFR

    Answer: (C) YZA

    Each group is three consecutive letters continuing from the last: PQR, STU, VWX, then YZA (wrapping from Z to A).

  5. Q5.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. YMW , VJT , SGQ , PDN, ?

    • ATYD
    • BHGF
    • CMJH
    • DMAK

    Answer: (D) MAK

    Each letter moves back 3 every time: Y→V→S→P→M, M→J→G→D→A, W→T→Q→N→K. Next: MAK.

  6. Q6.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: RBEH, RGOW, RLYL, RQIA, ?

    • ARVSP
    • BRVSH
    • CRVHS
    • DRSVP

    Answer: (A) RVSP

    The first letter stays R. The second letter moves +5 (B, G, L, Q, V), the third +10 (E, O, Y, I, S) and the fourth +15 (H, W, L, A, P). Next: RVSP.

  7. Q7.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: C D E F, C K S A, C R G V, C Y U Q, ?

    • AC E H K
    • BC F H K
    • CC F H L
    • DC F I L

    Answer: (D) C F I L

    The first letter stays C. Second letters go +7 (D, K, R, Y, F), third +14 (E, S, G, U, I) and fourth −5 (F, A, V, Q, L). Next: C F I L.

  8. Q8.Complete the pattern: 120, 96, 76.8, 61.44, ?

    • A60.27
    • B78.91
    • C47.89
    • D49.152

    Answer: (D) 49.152

    Each term is 0.8 times the one before: 61.44 × 0.8 = 49.152.

  9. Q9.Each of the letters in the word CONTRAST is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is first from the left and the one that is fifth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?

    • A10
    • B13
    • C15
    • D11

    Answer: (B) 13

    CONTRAST in alphabetical order: A C N O R S T T. First from the left is A. Fifth from the right is O (the 4th letter). Between A (1) and O (15) the alphabet has 13 letters.

  10. Q10.Which of the following addresses are identical to each other: 1. S. Iyer 17-D, Coral Residency, Thiruvananthapuram , 695014 2. S. Iyer 17-D, Coral Residency, Thiruvananthapuram , 695014 3. S. Iyer 17-D Coral Residency, Thiruvananthapuram , 695014 4. S. Iyer 17-D Coral Residency, Thiruvananthapuram , 695013

    • A1 and 2
    • B1 and 3
    • C2 and 4
    • D3 and 4

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2

    Addresses 1 and 2 match exactly. Address 3 has no comma after 17-D, and address 4 also has a different PIN (695013).

  11. Q11.Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, 110052 1. Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, 1100522 2. Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, 110052 3. Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, New Delhi, 110052 4. Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, 110053

    • A1 Only
    • B3 Only
    • C2 Only
    • D4 Only

    Answer: (C) 2 Only

    Only address 2 matches. Address 1 has an extra digit in the PIN, 3 says New Delhi, and 4 has PIN 110053.

  12. Q12.Find the best option that best completes the analogy. CAB : EDF :: GIH : ?

    • AJKL
    • BKJI
    • CILL
    • DJLI

    Answer: (C) ILL

    CAB → EDF is +2, +3, +4 (C→E, A→D, B→F). GIH: G+2 = I, I+3 = L, H+4 = L, giving ILL.

  13. Q13.Find the option that best completes the analogy. DP : XZ :: EN : ?

    • AYZ
    • BYB
    • CZB
    • DYX

    Answer: (D) YX

    D → X is −6 (or +20) and P → Z is +10. For EN: E − 6 = Y and N + 10 = X, giving YX.

  14. Q14.Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each, such that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. Line 1: Five men (A-E) are seated and all of them are facing South. Line 2: Five women (M-Q) are seated and all of them are facing North. Based on the arrangement, answer the question: D is opposite to M. M is at one of the extreme ends of Line 2. O is at the center position of Line 2. Who is second to the right of M in Line 2 (facing North)?

    • AO
    • BM
    • CA
    • DN

    Answer: (A) O

    Line 2 faces North, so each woman's right is East. O is in the middle (3rd seat) and M is at one end. For anyone to be second to M's right, M must be at the West end (seat 1). Second to her right is seat 3, which is O.

  15. Q15.In each of the following questions, a specific rearrangement pattern is applied to the first word to form the second. Identify the same pattern and apply it to the third word to determine the correct answer from the given alternatives. AROUND : RAUODN :: GROUND : ?

    • ARGUODN
    • BNDOOGR
    • COUNDGR
    • DDNUURG

    Answer: (A) RGUODN

    AROUND → RAUODN swaps each pair of letters: AR→RA, OU→UO, ND→DN. GROUND: GR→RG, OU→UO, ND→DN, giving RGUODN.

  16. Q16.In each of the following questions, the second group of letters is formed from the first using a specific alphabetical transformation. Apply the same pattern to the third group and find the correct option that completes the analogy. QDXM : SFYN :: UIOZ : ?

    • APAQM
    • BLPWA
    • CQNLA
    • DWKPA

    Answer: (D) WKPA

    QDXM → SFYN is +2, +2, +1, +1. UIOZ: U+2 = W, I+2 = K, O+1 = P, Z+1 = A, giving WKPA.

  17. Q17.Choose the odd one:

    • A2, 4, 8
    • B3, 9, 27
    • C5, 25, 125
    • D4, 16, 36

    Answer: (D) 4, 16, 36

    Each group is a number, its square and its cube: 2, 4, 8; 3, 9, 27; 5, 25, 125. The group 4, 16, 36 breaks this, since 4³ = 64.

  18. Q18.In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

    • AM13 : J10 : G7
    • BZ26 : W23 : T20
    • CD4 : A1 : X24
    • DH8 : E6 : B4

    Answer: (D) H8 : E6 : B4

    The letter and number match (M13, J10, G7) and each step is −3. Option C wraps round the alphabet (A1 → X24). In H8 : E6 : B4, E is 5, not 6, so this group breaks the pattern.

  19. Q19.In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

    • AZ1$ : Y2# : X3@
    • BW4% : V5^ : U6&
    • CT7* : S8( : R9]
    • DQ10$ : P11$ : O12$

    Answer: (D) Q10$ : P11$ : O12$

    Each group has three different symbols with letters falling and numbers rising (Z1$ : Y2# : X3@). In Q10$ : P11$ : O12$ the same symbol repeats, so it is the odd one.

  20. Q20.B is the daughter of A. C is the husband of B. D is the son of C. How is A related to D?

    • AFather
    • BGrandfather
    • CGrandmother
    • DCannot be determined

    Answer: (D) Cannot be determined

    B is A's daughter, C is B's husband and D is their son. A is D's grandparent, but A's gender is not given, so we cannot tell grandfather from grandmother.

  21. Q21.If 'X' means '+', 'Y' means '−', 'Z' means '×', and 'W' means '÷' what is the value of the following expression? 15 W 3 X 2 Y 4=?

    • A1
    • B3
    • C5
    • D7

    Answer: (B) 3

    Replace the letters: 15 ÷ 3 + 2 − 4 = 5 + 2 − 4 = 3.

  22. Q22.A’s father’s wife’s only daughter is B. How is A related to B?

    • ANephew
    • BCousin
    • CSibling
    • DUncle

    Answer: (C) Sibling

    A's father's wife is A's mother, and her only daughter is B. So A and B are children of the same parents: A is B's sibling.

  23. Q23.Introducing a boy, a girl says, “He is the son of my mother’s only son.” Who is the boy to the girl?

    • ABrother
    • BSon
    • CNephew
    • DCousin

    Answer: (C) Nephew

    The girl's mother's only son is the girl's brother. His son is her nephew.

  24. Q24.A is the wife of B. B is the brother of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?

    • AAunt
    • BMother
    • CSister-in-law
    • DGrandmother

    Answer: (A) Aunt

    C is D's father and B is C's brother, so B is D's uncle. B's wife A is D's aunt.

  25. Q25.If '+' means '−', '−' means '+', '×' means '÷', then 50 + 10 − 5 × 5 = ?

    • A41
    • B60
    • C65
    • D70

    Answer: (A) 41

    After swapping signs: 50 − 10 + 5 ÷ 5 = 50 − 10 + 1 = 41.

General Awareness (Q26–50)

  1. Q26.Arrange the following sites in chronological order based on the stylistic development of Buddhist sculpture: a) Mathura b) Bharhut c) Sanchi Stupa–1

    • Ab-c-a
    • Bc-a-b
    • Cc-b-a
    • Da-c-b

    Answer: (A) b-c-a

    Bharhut (c. 2nd century BCE) comes first. The gateways of Sanchi Stupa-1 (1st century BCE) come next, and Mathura sculpture (1st-3rd century CE) comes last: b-c-a.

  2. Q27.Which of the following statements about the Chithirai Festival of Madurai is correct?

    • AThe Chithirai Festival is celebrated in the tamil month of Margazhi
    • BLord Kallazhagar arrives on a golden horse
    • CThe festival is held exclusively in December
    • DThe festival ends with a game of bullfight

    Answer: (B) Lord Kallazhagar arrives on a golden horse

    At Madurai's Chithirai festival (April-May), Lord Kallazhagar comes to the Vaigai river on a golden horse. It is held in the Tamil month of Chithirai, not Margazhi or December.

  3. Q28.What is the term for a structured musical composition in Hindustani classical music?

    • AKriti
    • BBandish
    • CGamaka
    • DRasa

    Answer: (B) Bandish

    In Hindustani music a bandish is a fixed composition set to a raga and tala. Kriti is the Carnatic term.

  4. Q29.Consider the following statements regarding belt ranks and competition area in Judo: 1) A red-and-white belt is associated with judokas from Sixth dan to Eighth dan levels. 2) A shared safety zone of at least 1 meter must be maintained between adjoining competition areas. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • AOnly 1 is Correct
    • BOnly 2 is Correct
    • C1 and 2 both are correct
    • DNeither 1 nor 2 is Correct

    Answer: (A) Only 1 is Correct

    Statement 1 is true: 6th to 8th dan wear the red-and-white belt. Statement 2 is false: IJF rules require a shared safety area of at least 4 m between adjoining competition areas, not 1 m.

  5. Q30.Who broke the 30-year-old Asian Games men’s 5,000m meet record in National Open Athletics Championships 2024?

    • ABahadur Singh
    • BGulveer Singh
    • CNeeraj Chopra
    • DHima Das

    Answer: (B) Gulveer Singh

    At the 63rd National Open Athletics Championships (Bengaluru, August 2024), Asian Games medallist Gulveer Singh won the 5000 m in 13:54.70, breaking Bahadur Singh's 1994 meet record of 13:54.72. Note: the stem's “Asian Games” wording is loose. It was the National Open meet record.

  6. Q31.Consider the following statements regarding BRICS Science, Technology and Innovation (STI) cooperation: 1) It is based on mutual benefit and public-good-driven innovation. 2) It is governed only through annual Heads of State Summits. Which of the statements is/are correct?

    • AOnly 1 is correct
    • BOnly 2 is correct
    • CBoth 1 and 2 are correct
    • DNeither 1 nor 2 is correct

    Answer: (A) Only 1 is correct

    BRICS STI cooperation is based on mutual benefit and innovation for the public good. It is run through ministerial meetings and working groups, not only through annual summits, so only statement 1 is correct.

  7. Q32.Fill in the blank: The inaugural Khelo India Para Games took place in _____, showcasing seven sporting disciplines across three venues in New Delhi.

    • AMarch 2024
    • BJanuary 2023
    • CDecember 2023
    • DMarch 2025

    Answer: (C) December 2023

    The first Khelo India Para Games were held in New Delhi on 10-17 December 2023: seven sports across three venues.

  8. Q33.Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): Last Man in Tower explores the moral and ethical conflicts faced by residents during rapid urban development and real estate pressures in Mumbai. Reason (R): The novel focuses on the historical evolution of Mumbai’s architecture and its colonial past.

    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    • CA is true, but R is false.
    • DA is false, but R is true.

    Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false.

    Aravind Adiga's Last Man in Tower is about a Mumbai housing society under pressure from a builder. The assertion is true. The novel is not about the history of Mumbai's architecture, so the reason is false.

  9. Q34.Choose the correctly matched cave feature and its formation:

    • AStalactite – Grows upward from cave floor
    • BStalagmite – Formed by dripping water from cave ceiling
    • CPillar – Hangs from the cave roof
    • DStalactite – Formed by upward mineral flow

    Answer: (B) Stalagmite – Formed by dripping water from cave ceiling

    Stalactites hang from the cave roof. Stalagmites rise from the floor, built up by mineral-rich water dripping from the ceiling. Option B is the only correct pairing.

  10. Q35.What is the primary function of the NVS-02 satellite launched aboard GSLV-F15?

    • AIt supports meteorological observations for cyclone prediction.
    • BIt enables satellite-based television broadcasting.
    • CIt boosts India's navigation system by offering precise position and timing data.
    • DIt conducts deep-space communication with planetary probes.

    Answer: (C) It boosts India's navigation system by offering precise position and timing data.

    NVS-02, launched on GSLV-F15 (ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota, January 2025), is a NavIC navigation satellite that provides position and timing data.

  11. Q36.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Population growth can be measured in absolute numbers and percentage change per year. Reason (R): Measuring growth only in absolute numbers provides detailed insights into population trends over time.

    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    • CA is true, but R is false
    • DA is false, but R is true

    Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false

    Population growth can be measured in absolute numbers and as a yearly percentage, so A is true. Absolute numbers alone do not give a full picture, which is why rates are used, so R is false.

  12. Q37.Read the following statements regarding K. Sanjay Murthy's recent appointment as Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: 1. He took office as the CAG in November 2024 after the term of Girish Chandra Murmu. 2. The CAG is a constitutional office, which is appointed by the President under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. 3. The CAG's term is only five years and cannot be repeated. Which of the above is/are correct?

    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3 all are correct

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    K. Sanjay Murthy became CAG in November 2024, succeeding Girish Chandra Murmu (1 is true). The CAG is appointed by the President under Article 148 (2 is true). The term is 6 years or until age 65, not 5 years (3 is false).

  13. Q38.What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus?

    • AATP production
    • BProtein modification
    • CLipid synthesis
    • DDNA replication

    Answer: (B) Protein modification

    The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts and packages proteins (and lipids) for transport. ATP is made in mitochondria.

  14. Q39.As per Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, the GST Council’s decisions require what kind of majority of the weighted votes of the members present and voting?

    • ASimple majority
    • BThree-fourths majority
    • CTwo-thirds majority
    • DHalf majority

    Answer: (B) Three-fourths majority

    Article 279A(9): GST Council decisions need a three-fourths majority of the weighted votes of members present and voting.

  15. Q40.Which of the following correctly reflects the legal implication of Article 255 regarding presidential or governor’s assent to bills?

    • AState law is void without written Governor assent.
    • BMention of assent is mandatory for validity.
    • COmission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate law if assent is given.
    • DPresident’s assent must precede legislative passage to be valid.

    Answer: (C) Omission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate law if assent is given.

    Article 255: if the required assent is given, a law is not invalid merely because a prior recommendation or sanction was not obtained.

  16. Q41.When light enters from air into a medium, its speed changes. Which of the following properties of light remains constant during this transition?

    • AWavelength
    • BFrequency
    • CSpeed
    • DAmplitude

    Answer: (B) Frequency

    When light passes into another medium, its speed and wavelength change but its frequency stays the same.

  17. Q42.The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam(BSA) aims to align Indian evidence law with advancements in:

    • AForensic science and digital technology
    • BTraditional agricultural practices
    • CAncient philosophical texts
    • DOral storytelling traditions

    Answer: (A) Forensic science and digital technology

    The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act and recognises electronic and digital records and forensic evidence.

  18. Q43.Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is a civilian science award. Reason (R): It is conferred by Ministry of Culture.

    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    • CA is true, but R is false
    • DA is false, but R is true

    Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false

    The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is a national civilian award for science, so A is true. It is given by the Ministry of Science and Technology, not the Ministry of Culture, so R is false.

  19. Q44.The Global Gender Gap Report primarily measures disparities between genders in which key areas?

    • APolitics, Economy, Health, Education
    • BIncome, Wealth, Land, Technology
    • CCrime, Law, Justice, Security
    • DEnvironment, Climate, Water, Food

    Answer: (A) Politics, Economy, Health, Education

    The WEF Global Gender Gap Index measures four areas: economic participation, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment.

  20. Q45.Thang-Ta is a traditional martial dance associated with which northeastern state of India?

    • AAssam
    • BNagaland
    • CManipur
    • DTripura

    Answer: (C) Manipur

    Thang-Ta, the “sword and spear” martial art, comes from Manipur.

  21. Q46.Which of the following industry pairs is correctly grouped as heavy industries?

    • ASewing machines and Paint brushes
    • BShipbuilding and Automobile
    • CElectric bulbs and Fuse wires
    • DWatches and Paint brushes

    Answer: (B) Shipbuilding and Automobile

    Shipbuilding and automobiles need heavy raw materials and large capital, so they are heavy industries. Sewing machines, bulbs and watches are light industries.

  22. Q47.The President is elected by an electoral college, while the Governor is _____.

    • ADirectly elected
    • BAppointed by the President
    • CNominated by Supreme Court
    • DChosen by State Assembly

    Answer: (B) Appointed by the President

    The President is elected by an electoral college (Article 54). The Governor is appointed by the President (Article 155).

  23. Q48.The Western Ghats are a recognized biodiversity hotspot. Which of the following is currently considered the most significant threat to its endemic species, beyond general habitat loss?

    • AInfrastructure development projects (e.g., roads, dams, mining).
    • BIntroduction of invasive alien species.
    • CForest fires due to climate change.
    • DHuman-wildlife conflict due to encroachment.

    Answer: (B) Introduction of invasive alien species.

    SSC keyed invasive alien species. Assessments of the Western Ghats do list invasive plants (such as Lantana and Acacia) as a major threat to endemic species. Infrastructure is also widely cited, but it is a form of habitat loss, which the question sets aside. The key is arguable, and the answer is kept as SSC keyed it.

  24. Q49.NISAR’s orbit regime is?

    • AGTO
    • BGEO
    • CPolar sun-sync
    • DLEEO

    Answer: (C) Polar sun-sync

    NISAR (NASA-ISRO, launched July 2025 on GSLV-F16) flies in a sun-synchronous polar orbit at about 747 km.

  25. Q50.Consider the following statements: 1. The Governor can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. 2. The President has no such power regarding the Lok Sabha. Which of the above is/are correct?

    • AOnly 1
    • BOnly 2
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2

    Answer: (A) Only 1

    The Governor can dissolve the State Assembly (Article 174), so 1 is true. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha (Article 85), so 2 is false.

Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–75)

  1. Q51.What is the value of 4 + 44 + 444 + 4444 + 44444?

    • A49380
    • B42300
    • C41300
    • D45000

    Answer: (A) 49380

    4 + 44 + 444 + 4444 + 44444 = 49380.

  2. Q52.Simplify:(1 2/5 + 2.6) − 1 3/4

    • A2.25
    • B2.1
    • C2.35
    • D2.5

    Answer: (A) 2.25

    1⅖ = 1.4. (1.4 + 2.6) − 1.75 = 4 − 1.75 = 2.25.

  3. Q53.Evaluate the expression: 1/(3 − √8) − 1/(√8 − √7) + 1/(√7 − √6) − 1/(√6 − √5) + 1/(√5 − 2) = ?

    • A5
    • B3
    • C2
    • D0

    Answer: (A) 5

    Rationalise each term: 1/(3 − √8) = 3 + √8, 1/(√8 − √7) = √8 + √7, and so on. With the alternating signs everything cancels except 3 + 2 = 5.

  4. Q54.Determine the ratio of the number of students who play Football to the number of students who play Basketball in a survey of 120 students from the following table: Category | Number Play Football and Basketball | 25 Play Football but not Basketball | 45 Play Basketball but not Football | 35 Play neither sport | 15

    • A6:7
    • B7:5
    • C7:6
    • D5:7

    Answer: (C) 7:6

    Football = 25 + 45 = 70. Basketball = 25 + 35 = 60. Ratio 70 : 60 = 7 : 6.

  5. Q55.Tina and Meera started a business with ₹1,00,000 and ₹80,000 respectively. After 6 months, Meera added ₹40,000 more. Tina withdrew ₹20,000 at the same time. What is the profit-sharing ratio at the end of 1 year?

    • A9:10
    • B5:6
    • C7:4
    • D2:3

    Answer: (A) 9:10

    Tina: 1,00,000 × 6 + 80,000 × 6 = 10,80,000. Meera: 80,000 × 6 + 1,20,000 × 6 = 12,00,000. Ratio 108 : 120 = 9 : 10.

  6. Q56.A invests ₹20,000, while B invests ₹30,000. A receives an additional 20% for management. The total profit is ₹60,000. What is A's share?

    • A₹51,200
    • B₹41,200
    • C₹31,200
    • D₹21,200

    Answer: (C) ₹31,200

    A's management share = 20% of 60,000 = 12,000. The other 48,000 is split 2 : 3, so A gets 19,200 more. Total = ₹31,200.

  7. Q57.A batsman's average score for a certain number of innings is 44. If he scores 132 runs in the next innings, his average becomes 48. How many innings did he play earlier?

    • A21
    • B22
    • C23
    • D24

    Answer: (A) 21

    44n + 132 = 48(n + 1), so 4n = 84 and n = 21.

  8. Q58.The average of 13 numbers is 70. The average of the first five numbers is 60. The average of the next five numbers is 25 % higher than the average of the first five numbers. The 11th number is 6 less than the 13th number, and the 12th number is 4 greater than the 13th number. What is the average of the 11th and 12th numbers?

    • A78
    • B77
    • C76
    • D74

    Answer: (A) 78

    Total = 910. First five = 300; next five average 75, sum 375. The last three add to 235. If the 13th is t: (t − 6) + (t + 4) + t = 235, so t = 79. The 11th is 73 and the 12th is 83, average 78.

  9. Q59.In an election, 80% of eligible voters cast their votes. Of these votes, 5% were declared invalid. If a winning candidate received 11,400 votes, which accounted for 60% of the total valid votes, what was the total number of eligible voters enrolled in that election?

    • A20,000
    • B22,500
    • C25,000
    • D27,500

    Answer: (C) 25,000

    Valid votes = 0.8 × 0.95 × V and 60% of them is 11,400. So 0.456V = 11,400 and V = 25,000.

  10. Q60.The compound interest on a sum at 18 % p.a. for 1 ½ years, compounded yearly, is ₹2 862. Find the principal.

    • A₹10,000
    • B₹8 000
    • C₹2,000
    • D₹4,000

    Answer: (A) ₹10,000

    Compounded yearly for 1½ years: P × 1.18 × 1.09 = 1.2862P. CI = 0.2862P = 2862, so P = ₹10,000.

  11. Q61.If the compound interest on a certain sum at 16⅔% per annum for 3 years is ₹1270, find the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same period.

    • A₹1080
    • B₹1000
    • C₹1500
    • D₹2000

    Answer: (A) ₹1080

    At 16⅔% (= 1/6), CI for 3 years = P[(7/6)³ − 1] = 127P/216 = 1270, so P = 2160. SI = 2160 × (1/6) × 3 = ₹1080.

  12. Q62.A tea seller bought 15 kg of Darjeeling tea at ₹300 per kg and 25 kg of Assam tea at ₹240 per kg. He mixed them together. Due to a slight drop in market prices, he had to sell the entire mixture at ₹260 per kg. Calculate his total profit or loss.

    • ALoss of ₹100
    • BProfit of ₹100
    • CProfit of ₹200
    • DProfit of ₹200 (repeated on the official sheet)

    Answer: (A) Loss of ₹100

    Cost = 15 × 300 + 25 × 240 = 4,500 + 6,000 = ₹10,500. Sale = 40 × 260 = ₹10,400. So there is a loss of ₹100 (option A, as per SSC's answer key). Note: on SSC's official sheet options C and D are both printed as 'Profit of ₹200'; option D is labelled as a repeat here so the two can be told apart.

  13. Q63.An antique dealer sold three items, A, B, and C, with their selling prices in the ratio 4:5:6. He suffered a loss of 10% on item A, made a profit of 50% on item B, and broke even (no profit, no loss) on item C. What was his approximate percentage gain or loss in the overall deal?

    • Aloss of 8.88%
    • Bprofit of 8.88%
    • Cprofit of 10.88%
    • Dloss of 10.88%

    Answer: (B) profit of 8.88%

    Take SPs as 4, 5, 6. CPs = 4/0.9 = 4.444, 5/1.5 = 3.333 and 6. Total CP = 13.778, SP = 15, profit ≈ 8.87%, about 8.88%.

  14. Q64.A 75-liter mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3:2. If 15 liters of this mixture are removed and replaced with 10 liters of pure milk, what is the new ratio of milk to water in the mixture?

    • A11:7
    • B23:12
    • C17:11
    • D19:12

    Answer: (B) 23:12

    Milk 45, water 30. Removing 15 L takes out 9 milk and 6 water, leaving 36 : 24. Adding 10 milk gives 46 : 24 = 23 : 12.

  15. Q65.A wholesaler buys a batch of ceiling fans at a 50% markup over the factory's base cost ₹C. He then allows a 20% trade discount to the retailer. The retailer applies a 40% markup on his cost and offers a flat 10% discount to customers on the printed price. If a customer finally pays ₹18,144, what is the original base cost (₹C) of one ceiling fan from the factory?

    • A₹12,000
    • B₹11,500
    • C₹10,800
    • D₹10,000

    Answer: (A) ₹12,000

    Wholesaler price = 1.5C × 0.8 = 1.2C. Customer pays 1.2C × 1.4 × 0.9 = 1.512C = 18,144, so C = ₹12,000.

  16. Q66.A can lay railway track between two specified stations in 16 days, while B can complete the same task in 12 days. When C assists them, they manage to finish the job in just 4 days. How long would it take for C to complete the job on their own?

    • A8 1/2 days
    • B9 1/2 days
    • C9 3/5 days
    • D10 days

    Answer: (C) 9 3/5 days

    C's rate = 1/4 − 1/16 − 1/12 = (12 − 3 − 4)/48 = 5/48. C alone takes 48/5 = 9⅗ days.

  17. Q67.Three varieties of rice costing ₹40/kg, ₹50/kg, and a third unknown price are mixed in the ratio 2:3:5. If the resulting mixture is sold at ₹55/kg, making a profit of 10% on the cost price, what is the price of the third variety of rice per kg?

    • A₹52.50
    • B₹57.50
    • C₹54.00
    • D₹62.50

    Answer: (C) ₹54.00

    Cost price = 55/1.1 = 50. (2 × 40 + 3 × 50 + 5x)/10 = 50, so 230 + 5x = 500 and x = ₹54.

  18. Q68.A can build up a wall in 8 days while B can break it in 3 days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining part of the wall?

    • A7 1/3 days
    • B8 2/5 days
    • C9 1/5 days
    • D5 1/2 days

    Answer: (A) 7 1/3 days

    A alone for 4 days builds 1/2. For 2 days together the net rate is 1/8 − 1/3 = −5/24, so 5/12 is pulled down and 1/12 is left. The remaining 11/12 at 1/8 a day takes 22/3 = 7⅓ days.

  19. Q69.An airplane travels a specific distance at a speed of 240 km/h over the course of 5 hours. To cover the same distance in just 1 hour, it needs to fly at a speed of:

    • A1200 km/h
    • B1500 km/h
    • C1400 km/h
    • D1600 km/h

    Answer: (A) 1200 km/h

    Distance = 240 × 5 = 1200 km. To do it in 1 hour needs 1200 km/h.

  20. Q70.A person travels from city A to city B. If he travels at a speed of 50 km/h, he arrives 1 hour early. If he travels at a speed of 30 km/h, he arrives 1 hour late. What is the distance (in km) between city A and city B?

    • A150 km
    • B120 km
    • C200 km
    • D180 km

    Answer: (A) 150 km

    The time difference between the two speeds is 2 hours: d/30 − d/50 = 2, so d = 150 km.

  21. Q71.A ring-shaped metallic sheet has outer and inner radii 10 cm and 6 cm. What percentage of the full circle's area is the ring?

    • A36%
    • B48%
    • C64%
    • D76%

    Answer: (C) 64%

    Ring area/circle area = (10² − 6²)/10² = 64/100 = 64%.

  22. Q72.A circular pond is surrounded by a path 2 m wide. If the total area (pond + path) is 616 m² and the pond area is 452.16 m², what is the radius of the pond?

    • A10 m
    • B11 m
    • C12 m
    • D13 m

    Answer: (C) 12 m

    Pond area 452.16 = 3.14 × r², so r² = 144 and r = 12 m. (Pond + path radius 14 m gives 616 m² with π = 22/7.)

  23. Q73.The ratio of the circumferences of two circular flower beds is 3:5. If the smaller flower bed has a radius of 9 m, what is the radius of the larger flower bed?

    • A15 m
    • B17 m
    • C19 m
    • D21m

    Answer: (A) 15 m

    Circumferences are in the same ratio as the radii: 3 : 5 = 9 : r, so r = 15 m.

  24. Q74.What is the equation of line through (0,3) with slope −1?

    • Ay = −x + 3
    • By = x − 3
    • Cy = −x − 3
    • Dy = x + 3

    Answer: (A) y = −x + 3

    y = mx + c with m = −1 and c = 3 gives y = −x + 3.

  25. Q75.Given, x + 1/x = 5, then determine the value of x² + 1/x².

    • A25
    • B24
    • C26
    • D23

    Answer: (D) 23

    x² + 1/x² = (x + 1/x)² − 2 = 25 − 2 = 23.

English Comprehension (Q76–100)

  1. Q76.Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: BIBLIOPHILE

    • APublisher
    • BBookkeeper
    • CLibrarian
    • DBook-lover

    Answer: (D) Book-lover

    A bibliophile is a lover of books.

  2. Q77.Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Has two strings to his bow

    • AHe is indecisive in crucial matters.
    • BHe has two romantic interests simultaneously.
    • CHe has an additional skill or option to rely on.
    • DHe uses deception to achieve goals.

    Answer: (C) He has an additional skill or option to rely on.

    “To have two strings to one's bow” means having a second option or skill to fall back on.

  3. Q78.Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Lachrymose

    • ATearful
    • BMournful
    • CWeepy
    • DJovial

    Answer: (D) Jovial

    Lachrymose means tearful or mournful. Its opposite is jovial (cheerful).

  4. Q79.Identify the misspelt word

    • AAcquiescence
    • BBourgeoisie
    • CConsciencious
    • DEpitome

    Answer: (C) Consciencious

    The correct spelling is “Conscientious”.

  5. Q80.Spot the correct spelling of an electron-transport protein.

    • ACytocrome
    • BCytocrhome
    • CCytochrome
    • DCytohrome

    Answer: (C) Cytochrome

    Cytochrome is the correct spelling of the electron-transport haem protein.

  6. Q81.Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A state of temporary disuse or suspension'.

    • AIntermission
    • BRecess
    • CAbeyance
    • DDormancy

    Answer: (C) Abeyance

    Abeyance is a state of temporary disuse or suspension.

  7. Q82.Select the correct option: The analyst found the correlation to be ___ marginal to influence policy.

    • Atoo
    • Bvery
    • Cso
    • Das

    Answer: (A) too

    “Too … to” shows that something is excessive for a purpose: too marginal to influence policy.

  8. Q83.Select the correct option: Her argument was compelling; ___, it was based on outdated data.

    • Aotherwise
    • Bconversely
    • Cnevertheless
    • Dsubsequently

    Answer: (C) nevertheless

    “Nevertheless” gives the contrast: the argument was compelling, but it rested on outdated data.

  9. Q84.Select the correct option: Had it not been for her timely intervention, the discussion might well have ___ into an acrimonious stalemate.

    • Aevolved
    • Bdevolved
    • Cemerged
    • Dabsorbed

    Answer: (B) devolved

    “Devolve into” means to decline into a worse state, which fits an acrimonious stalemate.

  10. Q85.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The regulator's decision to postpone the implementation (1)/ was attributed partly to industry pressure (2)/ and partly due to legal ambiguity (3)/ surrounding the recent amendments. (4)

    • A(1)
    • B(2)
    • C(3)
    • D(4)

    Answer: (C) (3)

    The parallel structure is “partly to industry pressure and partly to legal ambiguity”. “Due to” in part (3) breaks it.

  11. Q86.Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That there exists no recourse for citizens (1)/ if environmental violations are condoned at the ministerial level (2)/ underline a systemic erosion of (3)/ constitutional accountability. (4)

    • A(1)
    • B(2)
    • C(3)
    • D(4)

    Answer: (C) (3)

    The subject is the clause “That there exists no recourse…”, which takes a singular verb: “underlines”, not “underline”.

  12. Q87.Change the following from active to passive: We shall have dispatched the invitations before Friday evening.

    • AThe invitations shall have dispatched before Friday evening.
    • BThe invitations shall have had been dispatched before Friday evening.
    • CThe invitations shall have be dispatched before Friday evening.
    • DThe invitations shall have been dispatched before Friday evening.

    Answer: (D) The invitations shall have been dispatched before Friday evening.

    The future perfect passive is shall have been + past participle: “The invitations shall have been dispatched before Friday evening.”

  13. Q88.Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The medieval ‘oriel’ window projected elegantly from the chapel wall. (Highlighted word shown in quotes.)

    • AThe priest admired the sunlight filtering through the oriel.
    • BThe duke stood by the oriel gazing at the courtyard.
    • CThe technician adjusted the frequency on the oriel.
    • DThe stained-glass oriel was restored by artisans.

    Answer: (C) The technician adjusted the frequency on the oriel.

    SSC keyed C. “Oriel” has one meaning, a projecting bay window, so no option has a true homonym. Option C is the only sentence where the word cannot mean a window, which is how the key reads it. Arguable question. The answer is kept as SSC keyed it.

  14. Q89.Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The photos will be printed by the studio within an hour.

    • AThe studio prints the photos within an hour.
    • BThe studio will print the photos within an hour.
    • CThe photos printed by the studio soon.
    • DThe studio had printed the photos in an hour.

    Answer: (B) The studio will print the photos within an hour.

    Future passive “will be printed by the studio” becomes the active “The studio will print the photos within an hour.”

  15. Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: In contemporary discourse, the debate between entrepreneurship and conventional employment has gained remarkable traction. While traditional employment offers predictability, structured growth, and a defined career trajectory, entrepreneurship appeals to those seeking autonomy, innovation, and the potential for exponential returns. However, both paths are fraught with distinct advantages and inherent uncertainties. Employment, particularly within established organizations, provides financial stability, social recognition, and institutional support. Employees are not burdened with existential risks such as capital loss or market unpredictability. Instead, they operate within frameworks of responsibility and hierarchy, where risk is absorbed at higher managerial levels. For many, this structure offers psychological comfort and a clear roadmap for progression. Conversely, entrepreneurship demands resilience, resourcefulness, and a high tolerance for ambiguity. Entrepreneurs must navigate volatile markets, regulatory complexities, and the absence of assured income—challenges often underestimated by aspirants. Yet, for those with a risk appetite and creative acumen, entrepreneurship promises a unique form of fulfillment. It allows individuals to disrupt existing paradigms, build ventures from the ground up, and possibly shape industries. Societal perceptions further complicate the dichotomy. In many cultures, steady employment is seen as the hallmark of success, while entrepreneurial endeavors are often perceived as reckless or unstable—until they succeed. This perception, however, is gradually shifting as global startup ecosystems mature and innovation becomes synonymous with progress. The real decision, therefore, lies not in which path is superior but in aligning one’s temperament, values, and long-term goals with the demands of each route. Entrepreneurship may offer liberation, but it is not without sacrifice. Employment may provide security, but it can come at the cost of creative constraint. A reflective, context-aware approach—not blind aspiration—is essential for navigating this professional crossroads.

    Q90.According to the passage, which quality is most crucial for entrepreneurs?

    • AObedience
    • BResilience
    • CDelegation
    • DConformity

    Answer: (B) Resilience

    The passage says entrepreneurship “demands resilience, resourcefulness, and a high tolerance for ambiguity”. Resilience is the quality named.

  16. Q91.Why is employment often psychologically comforting, as per the passage?

    • AIt allows for flexible innovation
    • BIt eliminates the need for competition
    • CIt provides hierarchy and reduced risk
    • DIt ensures rapid promotions

    Answer: (C) It provides hierarchy and reduced risk

    Employees work “within frameworks of responsibility and hierarchy, where risk is absorbed at higher managerial levels”, and this gives psychological comfort.

  17. Q92.How does the passage describe societal views toward entrepreneurship?

    • AAlways supportive
    • BUnanimously dismissive
    • COverwhelmingly negative
    • DSkeptical until proven successful

    Answer: (D) Skeptical until proven successful

    Entrepreneurial ventures are “perceived as reckless or unstable—until they succeed”, i.e. people stay sceptical until success is proven.

  18. Q93.What is implied by “absence of assured income” in the context of entrepreneurship?

    • AEntrepreneurs always work voluntarily
    • BNo fixed salary or stable cash flow
    • CProfits are guaranteed from start
    • DIncome is controlled by the government

    Answer: (B) No fixed salary or stable cash flow

    “Absence of assured income” means there is no fixed salary or steady cash flow.

  19. Q94.What does the word “dichotomy” in the passage most nearly mean?

    • AA shared understanding
    • BA mutual advantage
    • CA clear division between two contrasting things
    • DA repeated pattern

    Answer: (C) A clear division between two contrasting things

    A dichotomy is a division into two contrasting things, here entrepreneurship versus employment.

  20. Q95.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: He is looking forward ‘to meet you soon’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)

    • Ato meeting you soon
    • Bfor meeting you
    • Cmeeting you
    • Dto have met you

    Answer: (A) to meeting you soon

    “Look forward to” takes a gerund: “looking forward to meeting you soon”.

  21. Q96.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The judge declared the prisoner ‘as guilty’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)

    • Aguilty for
    • Bguilty
    • Cas being guilty
    • Dguilty to crime

    Answer: (B) guilty

    “Declare” takes the complement directly: “declared the prisoner guilty”. “As” is not needed.

  22. Q97.A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. Ravi said, “I like this pen.”

    • ARavi said he liked that pen.
    • BRavi said he like that pen.
    • CRavi said he liked this pen.
    • DRavi said he likes that pen.

    Answer: (A) Ravi said he liked that pen.

    Said → past tense: “like” becomes “liked” and “this” becomes “that”. “Ravi said he liked that pen.”

  23. Q98.A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The judge said that justice must be served at any cost.

    • A“Justice should be served at any cost,” said the judge.
    • B“Justice must be served at any cost,” the judge said.
    • C“We serve justice at any cost,” said the judge.
    • D“One must serve justice,” the judge said.

    Answer: (B) “Justice must be served at any cost,” the judge said.

    In direct speech the judge's words are given as spoken: “Justice must be served at any cost,” the judge said.

  24. Q99.Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. The rapid spread of misinformation and disinformation on social media platforms represents a major challenge to public discourse. 2. This method involves a systematic verification of facts, claims, and sources to provide a credible assessment of accuracy. 3. This phenomenon can erode public trust in news sources and undermine informed decision-making in a democratic society. 4. As a result, professional fact-checking organizations have emerged as a critical line of defense against the proliferation of false narratives.

    • A2, 1, 4, 3
    • B3, 1, 2, 4
    • C1, 3, 4, 2
    • D1, 4, 2, 3

    Answer: (C) 1, 3, 4, 2

    Sentence 1 names the problem (misinformation) and 3 gives its effect. Sentence 4 brings in fact-checkers as the response, and 2 explains their method: 1, 3, 4, 2.

  25. Q100.Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. It is a process that involves the systematic and objective investigation of a subject to discover new facts or to confirm existing ones. 2. Research is a foundational pillar of academic and scientific progress. 3. This can be either theoretical, aiming to expand knowledge, or applied, seeking to solve a practical problem. 4. The findings of this investigation are then documented and peer-reviewed to ensure validity and credibility.

    • A2, 1, 3, 4
    • B1, 2, 4, 3
    • C4, 3, 2, 1
    • D3, 4, 1, 2

    Answer: (A) 2, 1, 3, 4

    Sentence 2 introduces research, 1 defines it, 3 gives its two types and 4 covers how findings are documented: 2, 1, 3, 4.

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