SSC MTS Exam Pattern 2026: Quick Answer
The SSC MTS 2026 notification had not been released as of 7 November 2026 — no 2026 vacancy figure and no 2026 exam date is stated anywhere in this note, because SSC has published neither. The pattern below is from the last official notice, the MTS (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar (CBIC and CBN) Examination 2025 (uploaded on ssc.gov.in on 26 June 2025), which is the scheme to prepare with until the new notice appears. Paper 1 is one computer-based test in two sessions on the same day: Session I (Maths 20 + Reasoning 20, 40 questions, 120 marks, 45 minutes, no negative marking, qualifying only) and Session II (General Awareness 25 + English 25, 50 questions, 150 marks, 45 minutes, 1 mark deducted per wrong answer). Merit is made from Session II marks only.
Key takeaway: Session I is a gate, Session II is the exam. Attempt all 40 Session I questions — there is no penalty — but your rank comes entirely from Session II, where every wrong answer costs 1 mark against 3 for a right one. And both sessions are mandatory: missing one means disqualification.
Official source for the pattern: the SSC MTS and Havaldar Examination 2025 notice (ssc.gov.in, 26 June 2025). For the topic lists, see our SSC MTS syllabus 2026 note.
SSC MTS 2026 Notification Status (Read This First)
| Item | Status as of 7 November 2026 |
|---|---|
| 2026 notification | Not released — no official notice verified on ssc.gov.in (latest checks 7 and 30 October 2026 found nothing) |
| 2026 vacancies | Not announced — no figure stated in this note |
| 2026 exam date | Not announced — no date stated in this note |
| SSC calendar slot | The 2026-27 calendar pencilled the advertisement for 30 June 2026 and the exam for September–November 2026; both slots passed without a notice |
| Pattern in this note | Last official notice (MTS 2025, 26 June 2025) — SSC can change details in the new notice |
Do not trust any site quoting fixed MTS 2026 dates or vacancy totals: SSC has not published them. The 2025 cycle ran its computer-based exam from 4 to 20 February 2026, shortlisted Havaldar candidates on 3 August 2026, and held the Havaldar PET/PST from 24 to 31 August 2026. Check ssc.gov.in for the new notice when it appears, and expect this note to be updated then.
SSC MTS Exam Pattern at a Glance
| Session | Subject | Questions | Marks | Time | Negative marking | Counts in final merit? |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Session I | Numerical and Mathematical Ability | 20 | 60 | 45 minutes for both | None | No (qualifying) |
| Session I | Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving | 20 | 60 | 45 minutes for both | None | No (qualifying) |
| Session II | General Awareness | 25 | 75 | 45 minutes for both | 1 per wrong answer | Yes |
| Session II | English Language and Comprehension | 25 | 75 | 45 minutes for both | 1 per wrong answer | Yes |
| Total | 90 | 270 | 90 minutes | Merit: Session II, 150 marks |
- Each question carries 3 marks.
- Scribe-eligible candidates get 60 minutes for each session.
- Session I closes automatically after 45 minutes and Session II starts immediately.
- Both sessions are mandatory. Missing either session means disqualification, even if you score full marks in the other.
- Session II is evaluated only if you qualify Session I.
- The exam is held in 15 languages: English, Hindi and 13 regional languages (Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu) for Session I and the General Awareness section; the English section is in English only.
- Scores across shifts are normalised.
SSC MTS Session 1 Exam Pattern (Qualifying)
Session I is the gate. It has 40 questions — 20 Numerical and Mathematical Ability and 20 Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving — for 120 marks in 45 minutes, with no negative marking at all. That makes the strategy simple: attempt every question. An unanswered question and a wrong answer are worth exactly the same here (zero), so there is no reason to leave anything blank.
But do not treat it as a formality. Session II is evaluated only if you qualify Session I, and the minimum qualifying marks apply to both sessions: 30% for UR, 25% for OBC/EWS and 20% for all other categories. For Session I that means:
| Category | Minimum qualifying marks (Session I) | Session I (of 120) |
|---|---|---|
| UR | 30% | 36 |
| OBC / EWS | 25% | 30 |
| All others | 20% | 24 |
36 marks is 12 correct answers out of 40 for a UR candidate — very achievable, but only if you actually prepare. The questions are at Matriculation (Class 10) level: numbers, LCM and HCF, BODMAS, percentage, ratio and proportion, averages, simple interest, profit and loss, time and work, time and distance, basic geometry and mensuration, and simple data interpretation in Maths; alpha-numeric series, coding-decoding, analogy, direction sense, odd one out, jumbling, non-verbal reasoning, age calculations and calendar and clock in Reasoning. There is no compound interest, algebra or trigonometry in the MTS list.
SSC MTS Session 1 marking scheme: worked example
Suppose you attempt all 40 questions and get 28 right and 12 wrong:
- Marks for correct answers: 28 × 3 = 84
- Penalty: 12 × 0 = 0
- Score = 84 out of 120 — comfortably above the UR qualifying mark of 36
SSC MTS Session 2 Exam Pattern (Merit)
Session II is the real exam. It has 50 questions — 25 General Awareness and 25 English Language and Comprehension — for 150 marks in 45 minutes, with 1 mark deducted for every wrong answer against 3 marks for a correct one.
That is a much harsher penalty than in most SSC exams: one wrong answer cancels a third of a right one. Guess only when you can eliminate at least one option, and leave the rest blank. General Awareness covers Social Studies (History, Geography, Art and Culture, Civics, Economics), General Science and Environmental Studies up to the 10th standard — Class 6–10 NCERT books cover most of it. The 2025 notice does not list current affairs separately, but a quick revision of major recent events is a sensible safety net. English covers vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and correct usage, plus a simple paragraph with comprehension questions. English carries as many marks as GA (75 each), so daily vocabulary and grammar practice pays off.
SSC MTS Session 2 marking scheme: worked example
Suppose you attempt 40 questions, with 32 right and 8 wrong:
- Marks for correct answers: 32 × 3 = 96
- Penalty: 8 × 1 = 8
- Score = 96 − 8 = 88 out of 150
Now suppose you had guessed the remaining 10 questions blind and got 2 right and 8 wrong: that adds 2 × 3 − 8 × 1 = −2 to your score — but that outcome is below the average. A blind guess at +3/−1 with four options is exactly break-even on average (you expect 2.5 right out of 10, for 2.5 × 3 − 7.5 × 1 = 0), so blind guessing does not lower your expected score — it adds variance. The reason to guess only after eliminating an option is that an eliminated option turns the guess positive: with one option ruled out, a guess gains +0.33 on average ((1/3 × 3) − (2/3 × 1) = 1.00 − 0.67 = +0.33).
SSC MTS Qualifying Marks and Merit Rules
| Category | Minimum qualifying marks (Session I and Session II) | Session I (of 120) | Session II (of 150) |
|---|---|---|---|
| UR | 30% | 36 | 45 |
| OBC / EWS | 25% | 30 | 37.5 |
| All others | 20% | 24 | 30 |
The percentages are official; the marks columns are our arithmetic on the maximum marks.
- Merit for MTS = Session II only (normalised scores), with separate cut-offs by category, State/UT and age group (18–25 and 18–27).
- Havaldar candidates are shortlisted for PET/PST at 1:7 (vacancies : candidates) on Session II scores. Failing PET/PST keeps you in the race for MTS.
- Final allocation depends on Session II marks, your post-cum-State/UT preferences and your age group.
SSC MTS Havaldar PET and PST
The physical tests apply only to Havaldar posts (CBIC and CBN). MTS posts have no physical test.
| Test | Male | Female |
|---|---|---|
| PET (walking) | 1,600 m in 15 minutes | 1 km in 20 minutes |
| Height | 157.5 cm | 152 cm |
| Chest / weight | Chest 81 cm fully expanded, minimum expansion 5 cm | Weight 48 kg |
Relaxations: height by 5 cm (male) and 2.5 cm (female), and female weight by 2 kg, for Garhwalis, Assamese, Gorkhas and Scheduled Tribe candidates.
Havaldar aspirants should practise brisk walking alongside the written paper: 1,600 m in 15 minutes is an average of 6.4 km/h, which is a fast walk, not a stroll. The full physical standards, relaxations and preparation plan are in our SSC MTS PET/PST 2026 note.
SSC MTS Age Limit and Posts (2025 Notice)
Two age groups as on 1 August 2025: 18–25 years (most MTS posts) and 18–27 years (Havaldar in CBIC and CBN, and a few MTS posts), with the usual relaxations for reserved categories. Education: Matriculation (10th) pass. Both MTS and Havaldar are Pay Level 1 posts; see SSC MTS salary 2026 for in-hand pay. Age limits and eligibility for the 2026 cycle will be fixed by the new notice when it is published — the figures here are from the 2025 notice.
SSC MTS Exam Pattern vs Exam Strategy
| Pattern fact | What it means for your preparation |
|---|---|
| Session I has no negative marking | Attempt all 40 questions; a wrong answer costs nothing here |
| Session I is qualifying only | Clear it safely (36 marks for UR), then put your energy into Session II |
| Merit = Session II only, 150 marks | GA and English are the whole rank — split preparation time evenly between them |
| 1 mark negative in Session II | One wrong answer cancels a third of a right one; guess only after eliminating an option |
| Both sessions mandatory | Never skip a session; missing one means disqualification |
| 15 languages, Class 10 level | NCERT Classes 6–10 cover most GA; the exam rewards breadth, not depth |
| PET/PST only for Havaldar | MTS-only aspirants need no physical preparation; Havaldar aspirants should train walking now |
SSC MTS Exam Pattern FAQs
What is the SSC MTS exam pattern 2026?
One computer-based test in two sessions on the same day: Session I (Maths 20 + Reasoning 20, 120 marks, 45 minutes, no negative marking) and Session II (GA 25 + English 25, 150 marks, 45 minutes, 1 mark negative), as per the last official notice (MTS 2025). The 2026 notification had not been released as of 7 November 2026.
Has the SSC MTS 2026 notification been released?
No. As of 7 November 2026, no official MTS 2026 notice has been verified on ssc.gov.in. The 2026-27 calendar pencilled the advertisement for 30 June 2026, but that slot passed without a notice. This note uses the 2025 notice, the latest official scheme.
Is Session 1 counted in the SSC MTS merit list?
No. Session I is qualifying only; the merit list for MTS and the Havaldar PET shortlist are based on Session II scores (normalised).
Is there negative marking in SSC MTS?
No negative marking in Session I. In Session II, 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.
Is there a physical test for SSC MTS?
Only for Havaldar (CBIC and CBN): a walking test (1,600 m in 15 minutes for men, 1 km in 20 minutes for women) and physical standards. MTS posts have no physical test.
What happens if I miss one session of the SSC MTS exam?
You are disqualified. Both sessions are mandatory, and Session II is evaluated only if you qualify Session I.
Practice Next for SSC MTS
- Exam hub: SSC MTS 2026 exam page and free SSC MTS mock tests.
- Full mocks: SSC MTS Full Length Mock Test 07 and SSC MTS Full Length Mock Test 06.
- Sessionals: Maths Sectional 08, Reasoning Sectional 08, GA Sectional 05 and English Sectional 05.
- Related notes: SSC MTS syllabus 2026, SSC MTS PET/PST 2026, SSC MTS cut-off, SSC MTS salary 2026, SSC MTS eligibility 2026, SSC MTS previous year question paper, SSC GD vs SSC MTS 2026 and SSC GD syllabus 2026.
- Browse all study notes.
Sources: SSC MTS and Havaldar Examination 2025 official notice (ssc.gov.in, 26 June 2025); SSC Examination Calendar 2026-27; notification-status checks of ssc.gov.in reported 27 September, 7 October and 30 October 2026. Pattern figures are from the 2025 notice; no 2026 vacancy or exam date is stated because none has been published. Figures as of 7 November 2026.