SSC MTS English Questions with Answers: Quick Answer
This page gives 20 original SSC MTS English questions with answers and full explanations. Every question is written for the English Language and Comprehension section of Session 2 of the SSC MTS computer-based examination: 25 questions, 75 marks, 3 marks per question, 1 mark deducted for each wrong answer, inside a 45-minute session shared with General Awareness. Session 1 is qualifying and the merit list is made only on Session 2, so every English mark counts directly. The topics are the ones the section actually tests: reading comprehension, cloze passages, error spotting, synonyms and antonyms, idioms, one-word substitution, spelling, voice and narration.
These 20 questions are original practice questions written for this page. They are not previous-year questions and are not copied from any paper, book or website. They are modelled on the style and level of the Session 2 English section, so they work as a timed drill: 20 questions in about 18 minutes. Every answer follows a stated grammar rule or a standard word meaning, and the rule is given with the answer. As of 2 November 2026, the pattern figures on this page follow the official SSC MTS scheme described on the syllabus page linked below. This page makes no claim about any examination cycle or date.
SSC MTS English Method Box
Keep these ideas in front of you while you work through the questions. Almost every English question is one of them in disguise.
- Comprehension: the answer is always in the passage. Read the question first, then find the sentence that answers it. An option that sounds true but is not stated in the passage is wrong.
- Error spotting: read the sentence in four parts and test each part against one rule: subject-verb agreement, double comparatives, prepositions and tense. Most errors sit in the second part, where the subject and the verb are furthest apart.
- Neither/nor and either/or: the verb agrees with the nearer subject. "Neither the students nor the teacher was present" is correct, because "teacher" is singular and stands nearest the verb.
- Synonyms and antonyms: answer from the word's core meaning, not from its associations. "Abandon" means to leave completely, and "ancient" means very old, so its opposite is "modern".
- Voice and narration: in passive voice, the object becomes the subject and the verb takes "was/were + past participle". In indirect speech, "am" becomes "was" and "I" becomes "he" or "she" when the reporting verb is in the past.
Shortcut habit: in error-spotting questions, find the subject and the verb first and check that they agree. Half of all errors in this section are agreement errors, and they are visible the moment the subject and verb are isolated.
Questions 1 to 4 — Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
For many years, the village of Rampur had no library. Children who wanted to read borrowed books from a small shop in the neighbouring town, and the journey took an hour on foot. When a retired teacher named Mr Rao returned to the village, he opened a reading room in his own house with two hundred books collected from friends and former students. Within a few months, the room was full every evening. Children came after school, finished their homework there, and borrowed books to take home. The village council noticed the change and gave the reading room a larger space near the school. Today the library lends books to five nearby villages, and the children of Rampur read more than children in any neighbouring village. Mr Rao says the library succeeded because it opened its doors every day, without fees and without forms.
Q1. Why did the children of Rampur travel to the neighbouring town?
(A) To borrow books (B) To attend school (C) To meet Mr Rao (D) To buy food
Answer: (A) To borrow books. The passage says the village had no library and children borrowed books from a small shop in the neighbouring town.
Q2. What did Mr Rao use to start the reading room?
(A) Money from the village council (B) Books bought from the town shop (C) A government grant (D) Two hundred books collected from friends and former students
Answer: (D) Two hundred books collected from friends and former students. The passage states this directly. The village council gave a larger space later, after the reading room was already running.
Q3. Which word in the passage is closest in meaning to "eager"?
(A) Keen (B) Full (C) Quiet (D) Daily
Answer: (A) Keen. The passage describes children coming every evening and reading more than children in neighbouring villages, which shows eagerness. "Keen" means eager and enthusiastic.
Q4. What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) Villages need larger schools (B) Travelling to towns is good for children (C) A small library changed the reading habits of a village (D) Retired teachers should open shops
Answer: (C) A small library changed the reading habits of a village. The passage traces the change from no library to a library serving five villages, and ends with the children reading more than their neighbours.
Question 5 — Cloze
Q5. Choose the correct word to fill the blank: The teacher ___ the students to read every day.
(A) encouraged (B) discouraged (C) prevented (D) forbade
Answer: (A) encouraged. The sentence needs a word meaning "urged to do something good". "Encouraged" fits; "discouraged", "prevented" and "forbade" all mean the opposite.
Question 6 — Subject-Verb Agreement
Q6. Choose the correct word to fill the blank: Neither the students nor the teacher ___ present yesterday.
(A) were (B) are (C) have been (D) was
Answer: (D) was. With "neither/nor", the verb agrees with the nearer subject. "Teacher" is singular and stands nearest the verb, so "was" is correct.
Question 7 — Error Spotting
Q7. Find the part with an error: The committee (A) / have decided (B) / to postpone (C) / the meeting (D).
(A) Part A (B) Part B (C) Part C (D) Part D
Answer: (B) Part B. "Committee" is a singular collective noun, so the verb must be "has decided", not "have decided". The error is in part B.
Question 8 — Error Spotting
Q8. Find the part with an error: The box (A) / of chocolates (B) / were (C) / on the table (D).
(A) Part A (B) Part B (C) Part C (D) Part D
Answer: (C) Part C. The subject is "the box", which is singular, so the verb must be "was", not "were". The phrase "of chocolates" does not change the subject. The error is in part C.
Question 9 — Synonym
Q9. Choose the word closest in meaning to ABANDON.
(A) Leave (B) Keep (C) Hold (D) Save
Answer: (A) Leave. "Abandon" means to give up completely or leave behind. "Keep", "hold" and "save" mean the opposite.
Question 10 — Antonym
Q10. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ANCIENT.
(A) Old (B) Modern (C) Antique (D) Primitive
Answer: (B) Modern. "Ancient" means very old, belonging to the distant past. "Modern" means of the present time, which is its opposite. "Old", "antique" and "primitive" are all similar in meaning to "ancient".
Question 11 — Synonym
Q11. Choose the word closest in meaning to BRAVE.
(A) Fearful (B) Weak (C) Courageous (D) Timid
Answer: (C) Courageous. "Brave" means ready to face danger without fear, which is "courageous". "Fearful", "weak" and "timid" are opposites.
Question 12 — Antonym
Q12. Choose the word opposite in meaning to VICTORY.
(A) Success (B) Defeat (C) Triumph (D) Achievement
Answer: (B) Defeat. "Victory" means winning. "Defeat" means losing, which is its opposite. "Success", "triumph" and "achievement" are similar in meaning to "victory".
Question 13 — Idiom
Q13. What does the idiom "to bite the dust" mean?
(A) To eat hastily (B) To work in a field (C) To hide from danger (D) To fail or be defeated
Answer: (D) To fail or be defeated. The idiom comes from the image of a fallen fighter's face in the dust, and it means to be defeated or to fail.
Question 14 — Idiom
Q14. What does the idiom "a piece of cake" mean?
(A) Something very sweet (B) A small gift (C) Something very easy (D) A birthday celebration
Answer: (C) Something very easy. The idiom means a task that is easy to do. It has nothing to do with actual cake.
Question 15 — One-Word Substitution
Q15. Choose the one word for "a person who writes books".
(A) Author (B) Reader (C) Editor (D) Publisher
Answer: (A) Author. An author writes books. A reader reads them, an editor prepares them for publication, and a publisher prints and sells them.
Question 16 — One-Word Substitution
Q16. Choose the one word for "one who can use both hands equally well".
(A) Versatile (B) Skilful (C) Flexible (D) Ambidextrous
Answer: (D) Ambidextrous. "Ambidextrous" comes from Latin "ambi" (both) and "dexter" (right hand), and means able to use both hands equally well.
Question 17 — Spelling
Q17. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) Occurence (B) Ocurrence (C) Occurrence (D) Occurrance
Answer: (C) Occurrence. The correct spelling is O-C-C-U-R-R-E-N-C-E, with double C and double R. The other options miss one of the doubled letters or use the wrong vowel.
Question 18 — Active and Passive Voice
Q18. Choose the correct passive form of "She wrote a letter."
(A) A letter is written by her (B) A letter was written by her (C) A letter has been written by her (D) A letter had been written by her
Answer: (B) A letter was written by her. The sentence is in the simple past, so the passive form uses "was + written". "Is written" is present tense, and the perfect forms change the tense.
Question 19 — Direct and Indirect Speech
Q19. Choose the correct indirect form of: He said, "I am busy."
(A) He said that he is busy (B) He said that I was busy (C) He says that he was busy (D) He said that he was busy
Answer: (D) He said that he was busy. In indirect speech with a past-tense reporting verb, "am" becomes "was" and "I" becomes "he". The reporting verb stays in the past tense.
Question 20 — Preposition
Q20. Choose the correct word to fill the blank: He has been suffering from fever ___ Monday.
(A) for (B) since (C) from (D) by
Answer: (B) since. "Since" is used with a point of time, such as Monday, to mark the start of a period. "For" is used with a duration, such as "for three days".
How to Use These Questions
Attempt all 20 questions in 18 minutes, then check the explanations for every question you missed or guessed. For each miss, write the rule that was missed: an agreement rule, a tense rule, a word meaning or an idiom. Re-attempt the missed questions after a day without looking at the answers. The English section rewards accuracy more than speed, because each question carries 3 marks and a wrong answer loses 1 mark, so a guessed answer costs more here than in most other sections. Never guess on a question where two options both look possible; leave it blank and protect the marks you have earned.
- Check the full scheme: SSC MTS syllabus 2026 — Session 1 and Session 2 pattern, marks and negative marking.
- Practise profit and loss: SSC MTS profit and loss questions — 6 official 2024 questions solved step by step.
- Read the previous-year hub: SSC MTS previous year question paper — all 10 playable official 2024 papers.
- Check the comparison: SSC GD vs SSC MTS 2026 — how the two examinations differ in pattern and posts.
- Attempt a full paper: SSC MTS 2024 question paper 8 October Shift 1 — the complete 90-question paper under exam conditions.
SSC MTS English Questions FAQs
How many English questions are there in the SSC MTS exam?
25 questions in the English Language and Comprehension section of Session 2, worth 75 marks out of the session's 150. The full examination has 90 questions in 90 minutes across two sessions, and the merit list is made only on Session 2.
What is the marking scheme for MTS English questions?
Each question carries 3 marks, and 1 mark is deducted for each wrong answer. A blank answer loses nothing. With 25 questions, the section is worth 75 marks before negative marking.
Which English topics matter most for MTS?
Reading comprehension, cloze passages, error spotting, synonyms and antonyms, idioms, one-word substitution, spelling, voice and narration. The questions stay at a straightforward level, so grammar rules and word meanings matter more than advanced vocabulary.
Are these 20 questions from previous-year papers?
No. They are original practice questions written for this page and modelled on the style and level of the Session 2 English section. For questions taken from official papers, see the previous-year paper hub linked above.
How should I time the English section in the real exam?
Aim for about 18 minutes for the 25 English questions inside the 45-minute Session 2, leaving the rest for General Awareness. Read the comprehension passage once, answer its questions, and do not return to it. Attempt the vocabulary questions first if they are your strength, since they take the least time.
Sources
- SSC MTS (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar Examination scheme: Session 1 with 40 questions and no negative marking, Session 2 with 50 questions, 3 marks each, 1 mark deducted per wrong answer, as described on this site's SSC MTS syllabus 2026 page, which follows the official SSC notice.
- All 20 questions, options and solutions on this page are original and were written for this page. The comprehension passage is an original story written for this page, and every answer follows a stated grammar rule or a standard word meaning.
Last checked: 2 November 2026.