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IBPS RRB English Error Spotting Questions: 20 Solved Questions with Answers
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IBPS RRB English Error Spotting Questions: 20 Solved Questions with Answers

By Published: 6 November 2026Exam: IBPS RRB PO / IBPS RRB Clerk
#english-language#error-spotting#ibps-rrb-po#ibps-rrb-clerk#rrb-mains-english#bank-exams#english-questions

Exam

IBPS RRB PO / IBPS RRB Clerk

Subject

English Language

Reading time

22 min · 10 sections

Published

6 November 2026

On this page
  1. 1IBPS RRB English Error Spotting Questions: Quick Answer
  2. 2What This Set Covers
  3. 3How to Use This Set
  4. 4The Twenty Rules That Decide Error Spotting
  5. 5Error Spotting: Questions 1–20
  6. 6Answer Key
  7. 7Common Mistakes
  8. 8Memory Tricks
  9. 9Frequently Asked Questions
  10. 10Practice Next

IBPS RRB English Error Spotting Questions: Quick Answer

This set has 20 original error spotting questions with step-by-step explanations, written for the IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Mains English section. Every sentence is built around one rule of English grammar — subject-verb agreement, tense, articles, prepositions, pronouns, parallelism or conditionals — and in four of the twenty sentences there is no error, as the real paper does it. Each question gives you five options: four parts of the sentence and "No error". Your job is to find the one faulty part, or to say confidently that nothing is wrong. Every explanation tells you not only which part is wrong but why it is wrong and what the correct form is, so a question you miss still teaches you the rule.

Error spotting is the most predictable part of the RRB Mains English paper, and that is good news. The English section in both the RRB PO Mains and the RRB Clerk Mains is 40 questions for 40 marks in 30 minutes, with a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every wrong answer. You may attempt the section in English or in Hindi — you choose one language for the whole section, not question by question. That gives you just 45 seconds per question, and error spotting is where those seconds are cheapest: a candidate who knows the twenty most-tested rules can answer an error spotting question in under 30 seconds, banking time for the reading comprehension passage that follows.

Key takeaway: In error spotting, the error is almost always in the part of the sentence you read fastest. Slow down on the verb — check who the subject really is, what tense the sentence lives in, and whether the verb agrees with that subject. Half the questions in this set are decided by the verb alone. Read the sentence once for meaning, then once more with your eyes on the verb, and only then look at the options.

What This Set Covers

BlockQuestionsRules tested
Subject-verb agreement1, 6, 9, 11, 14, 19Collective nouns, "one of", "many a", "the number of", "along with"
Tense and time words5, 10, 13, 20Since/for, present perfect with a past date, "by the time", future in time clauses
Articles and prepositions2, 3, 17In/at, despite, between/among, "command of", "senior to"
Pronouns and determiners15, 17"One of the few who", "between you and me", relative pronouns
Parallelism and structure7, 18"Which" clauses, double comparatives, "not only… but also"
No-error sentences4, 8, 12, 16Correct sentences — the trap is inventing an error
Total20Mains level, 5 options each

The answer key at the bottom spreads across all five options — A 4, B 4, C 4, D 4, E 4 — so no option dominates, and no option repeats more than once in a row. If your own mock answers cluster on one letter, that is a signal to re-check, not a pattern to trust.

How to Use This Set

Give yourself 15 minutes for the 20 questions — that is 45 seconds a question, exactly the pace the RRB Mains English section demands. Read each sentence twice: once for meaning, once with your eyes on the verb. Cover the options while you read the sentence the first time, because the options will pull your attention to the wrong part. When you think you have found the error, say the corrected sentence to yourself in full before marking the answer — if the correction sounds natural and the rest of the sentence still makes sense, you have found it. If no part sounds wrong, do not force one: four questions in this set genuinely have no error, and in the real paper the "No error" option is correct roughly a fifth of the time. Mark every question you guessed, and after the timer, rework the guessed ones before reading the explanations.

The Twenty Rules That Decide Error Spotting

Error spotting looks like a test of instinct, but it is really a test of about twenty rules that the examiners return to again and again. Learn the rules and the questions become a checklist, not a gamble. The most important rule is subject-verb agreement: the verb agrees with the real subject, not with the nearest noun. "The committee have decided" is wrong because "committee" is singular here; "the number of branches have increased" is wrong because "the number" is singular, even though "branches" sits right next to the verb. The mirror image is "a number of customers was waiting", which is wrong the other way — "a number of" takes a plural verb. Two phrases that trap candidates every year are "one of the officers who have been selected" — the verb after "who" agrees with "officers", plural — and "many a student have applied", where "many a" always takes a singular verb, so it must be "has applied". Words like "along with", "as well as" and "together with" never change the number of the subject: "the teacher, along with his students, are going" is wrong, because the subject is still "the teacher", singular.

The second family of rules is tense. "Since" goes with a point of time and "for" goes with a period of time: "since five years" is wrong, "for five years" is right, and "since last Monday" is right. The present perfect never takes a finished past-time word, so "she has completed her graduation in 2023" is wrong — it must be "she completed her graduation in 2023". In a time clause, the future is expressed with the simple present: "before the exam will start" is wrong, "before the exam starts" is right. And in a conditional, the "if" clause does not take "will": "if you will apply" is wrong, "if you apply" is right.

The third family is prepositions and small words. "Despite" never takes "of" — "despite of the rain" is wrong. "Between" is used for two people and takes the objective case, so "between you and I" is wrong and "between you and me" is right. "Senior" takes "to", not "than"; "prefer" takes "to", not "than"; "good" takes "at", not "in"; "similar" takes "to", not "with"; "command" takes "of", not "over". None of these is a matter of opinion; each is a fixed pairing, and the exam tests the same pairings year after year.

The fourth family is comparatives and pronouns. A double comparative is always wrong: "much more lower" must be "much lower". When comparing two people or things, use the comparative, not the superlative: "the most intelligent of the two sisters" must be "the more intelligent of the two sisters". A relative pronoun after "one of the few" takes a plural verb, because it refers to the plural noun: "one of the few officers who is known" must be "who are known". Finally, remember the discipline of the "No error" option. In a set of twenty questions, three or four sentences will be completely correct. The examiner puts them there precisely to catch the candidate who cannot resist finding a fault. If you have checked the verb, the tense, the preposition and the pronoun, and nothing is wrong, mark "No error" and move on.

Error Spotting: Questions 1–20

Read each sentence and find the part that contains an error. If there is no error, choose option E.

Q1. The committee (A) / have decided (B) / to extend the deadline (C) / for loan applications. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: B — Part (B).

Explanation: "Committee" is a singular collective noun here, acting as one body, so the verb must be singular: "has decided", not "have decided". The trap is the plural-sounding idea of a committee made of many people — but grammatically it is one unit, and one unit takes "has".

Q2. He is one of the officers (A) / who have been selected (B) / for the training programme (C) / at Mumbai last month. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: D — Part (D).

Explanation: The preposition is wrong: cities take "in", not "at" — "in Mumbai last month". "At" is used for a specific point or a small place, such as "at the station" or "at the branch". Parts (A), (B) and (C) are all correct, including "who have been selected", where "have" agrees with the plural "officers".

Q3. Despite of the heavy rain, (A) / the branch opened (B) / on time (C) / and served all the customers. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: A — Part (A).

Explanation: "Despite" never takes "of". The correct form is simply "Despite the heavy rain". If you want to use "of", the word is "in spite of the heavy rain" — the two phrases are not interchangeable in form, and the exam tests this confusion almost every year.

Q4. The new savings scheme (A) / offers a higher rate of interest (B) / than any other scheme launched (C) / by the bank this year. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: E — No error.

Explanation: The sentence is correct as written. "Any other scheme" is the right comparison — without "other", the scheme would be compared with itself. Do not invent an error here: this is one of the four correct sentences in the set, and marking a part would cost you 0.25 marks.

Q5. She has been working (A) / in this bank (B) / since five years (C) / and knows every customer by name. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: C — Part (C).

Explanation: "Since" goes with a point of time, such as "since 2021" or "since last Monday". "Five years" is a period of time, so the correct preposition is "for": "for five years". Remember it as a pair — since + point, for + period — and this error becomes impossible to miss.

Q6. The informations (A) / provided in the notice (B) / are incomplete (C) / and need to be updated. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: A — Part (A).

Explanation: "Information" is an uncountable noun and has no plural form — "informations" is always wrong. The correct sentence is "The information provided in the notice is incomplete", with the singular verb "is" to match. The same rule applies to advice, furniture, luggage and equipment.

Q7. The bank has launched (A) / a new facility (B) / which allow customers (C) / to update their KYC online. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: C — Part (C).

Explanation: The relative pronoun "which" refers to the singular "a new facility", so the verb must be singular: "which allows customers", not "which allow customers". When a "which" or "that" clause follows a noun, check the number of that noun first — it decides the verb.

Q8. Ramesh, who joined the bank as a clerk in 2019, (A) / was promoted to officer grade in 2024 (B) / after clearing the internal examination (C) / with distinction. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: E — No error.

Explanation: The sentence is correct. The commas around the "who" clause are in the right place, the tenses are consistent, and "with distinction" is the correct idiom. This is a correct sentence dressed up to look suspicious — the long opening clause is the bait.

Q9. The number of branches (A) / have increased (B) / from forty to fifty-two (C) / in the last two years. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: B — Part (B).

Explanation: "The number of" is singular, so the verb must be "has increased", not "have increased". The plural noun "branches" sits next to the verb and pulls the eye, but the real subject is "the number". Contrast this with "a number of customers", which takes a plural verb — the exam tests both forms.

Q10. The candidate should (A) / reach the centre (B) / at least an hour (C) / before the exam will start. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: D — Part (D).

Explanation: In a time clause introduced by "before", "when", "as soon as" or "after", the future is expressed with the simple present: "before the exam starts", not "before the exam will start". The "will" belongs only in the main clause, never in the time clause.

Q11. There is (A) / no less than fifty applicants (B) / for the post of clerk (C) / in this district alone. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: A — Part (A).

Explanation: In a "there" sentence, the verb agrees with the noun that follows it. "Fifty applicants" is plural, so the verb must be "There are", not "There is". Read the sentence backwards from the noun to the verb whenever you see "there is" or "there are".

Q12. The government has announced a special package (A) / for farmers affected by the drought (B) / in the southern districts (C) / of the state. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: E — No error.

Explanation: The sentence is correct as written. The present perfect "has announced" is right for a recent announcement with present relevance, and every preposition is in place. Do not let the length of the sentence convince you that something must be wrong.

Q13. The farmer requested (A) / the bank manager (B) / to grant him (C) / some more time for repay the loan. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: D — Part (D).

Explanation: After the preposition "for", a verb must take the "-ing" form: "for repaying the loan", not "for repay the loan". Alternatively the sentence could use the infinitive, "some more time to repay the loan". Either correction works, but "for repay" is never correct.

Q14. Many a student (A) / have applied (B) / for this scholarship (C) / in the last two years. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: B — Part (B).

Explanation: "Many a" always takes a singular verb, even though it refers to many people: "Many a student has applied", not "have applied". This is a favourite examiner's trap precisely because the meaning is plural and the grammar is singular.

Q15. She is (A) / one of the few officers (B) / who is known (C) / for her honesty and hard work. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: C — Part (C).

Explanation: After "one of the few", the relative pronoun "who" refers to the plural noun "officers", so the verb must be plural: "who are known", not "who is known". Compare this with Q2, where "one of the officers who have been selected" is correct for exactly the same reason.

Q16. Unless you submit the required documents (A) / before the deadline, (B) / your application will not be considered (C) / for the post. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: E — No error.

Explanation: The sentence is correct. "Unless" already carries a negative meaning, so it correctly pairs with "will not be considered" — adding another negative, such as "unless you do not submit", would be the error. The conditional structure is complete and consistent.

Q17. Between you and I, (A) / the new policy (B) / is likely to benefit (C) / small depositors the most. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: A — Part (A).

Explanation: A preposition takes the objective case, so "between you and I" must be "between you and me". "I" is the subject form and can never follow a preposition. This error survives in everyday speech because "you and I" sounds formal — in the exam it is simply wrong.

Q18. He told me (A) / that he would (B) / come to the office (C) / on the next day morning. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: D — Part (D).

Explanation: "On the next day morning" is not idiomatic English. The correct phrase is "the next morning" — "he would come to the office the next morning". The extra words "on the" and "day" both have to go; in reported speech, "tomorrow" becomes "the next day", and "tomorrow morning" becomes "the next morning".

Q19. The fleet of buses (A) / are parked (B) / outside the depot (C) / every night. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: B — Part (B).

Explanation: "Fleet" is a singular collective noun, so the verb must be "is parked", not "are parked". The plural noun "buses" sits between the subject and the verb and creates the confusion — cover it with your thumb and the error becomes obvious: "The fleet… is parked".

Q20. The two schemes (A) / are similar (B) / with each other (C) / in almost every respect. (D)

A. Part (A) B. Part (B) C. Part (C) D. Part (D) E. No error

Answer: C — Part (C).

Explanation: "Similar" takes the preposition "to", not "with": "similar to each other". This is a fixed pairing — similar to, different from, senior to, junior to, prefer to — and the exam tests one of these pairings in almost every paper. Learn the pairings as units, not as separate words.

Answer Key

QuestionAnswerQuestionAnswer
Q1BQ11A
Q2DQ12E
Q3AQ13D
Q4EQ14B
Q5CQ15C
Q6AQ16E
Q7CQ17A
Q8EQ18D
Q9BQ19B
Q10DQ20C

Key spread: A 4, B 4, C 4, D 4, E 4. No option is correct more than four times out of twenty, and no option repeats more than once in a row anywhere in the key.

Common Mistakes

The first and most expensive mistake in error spotting is trusting the noun nearest the verb instead of the real subject. In Q9, "branches" is plural but the subject is "the number", singular; in Q19, "buses" is plural but the subject is "the fleet", singular; in Q7, the verb follows "which", and "which" takes its number from "facility", singular. Before you judge any verb, find the subject by asking "who or what is doing this?" and ignore every noun in between. The second mistake is correcting the wrong half of a fixed pairing. "Despite of" is wrong, but so is "in spite the rain" — the pairings are "despite" alone and "in spite of" together, and swapping half of one for half of the other is the trap. The same applies to "prefer to", "senior to", "similar to" and "good at": learn each pairing as one unit and never mix them. The third mistake is forcing an error into a correct sentence. Four questions in this set have no error, and in the real paper the "No error" option is right about a fifth of the time. Candidates who cannot accept a clean sentence lose marks they had already earned — Q4, Q8, Q12 and Q16 in this set are all correct, and each one looks slightly suspicious on purpose. The fourth mistake is applying a tense rule to the wrong clause. In Q10, "will" is fine in the main clause and wrong only in the "before" clause. Tense is decided clause by clause, never for the whole sentence at once. The fifth mistake is the double comparative and the double negative — "much more lower", or "unless you do not submit" — where the candidate adds emphasis and breaks the grammar. One comparative is enough, and "unless" is already negative. Finally, never choose an option because the sentence "sounds odd" in your dialect. Error spotting tests standard written English, not spoken habit. "Between you and I" sounds formal and educated in conversation, and it is wrong in the exam. Trust the rule, not the sound.

Memory Tricks

Five quick checks cover most error spotting questions, and they are worth practising until they are automatic. First, the thumb test: cover every word between the subject and the verb with your thumb and read what is left — "The fleet… are parked" becomes "The fleet are parked", and the error jumps out. Second, the since/for pair: "since" always answers "since when?" with a point in time, and "for" always answers "for how long?" with a period. Third, the "one of" rule: "one of the + plural noun" is always followed by a plural verb after "who", so "one of the officers who have" is right and "who has" is wrong. Fourth, the preposition pairs as a short chant: despite alone, in spite of, prefer to, senior to, similar to, good at, different from, command of. Say the chant before the exam and the pairing questions answer themselves. Fifth, the "No error" discipline: before you mark a part, ask yourself whether you can write the correction. If you cannot name the corrected form — "it should be X" — you have not found an error, you have found a suspicion, and a suspicion is not an answer. Mark "No error" and move on.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many error spotting questions come in the IBPS RRB Mains English section?

The English section as a whole is 40 questions for 40 marks in 30 minutes, and error spotting is usually one of the largest blocks inside it, alongside reading comprehension and cloze test. The exact split varies from year to year, but you should expect roughly 5 to 10 error spotting questions in the RRB Mains, with the rest of the section made up of comprehension, cloze, fillers and sentence rearrangement.

Is there negative marking in the RRB Mains English section?

Yes. Every wrong answer costs 0.25 marks, the same as every other section of the Mains. That is why the "No error" discipline matters: a guessed error on a correct sentence costs you a quarter mark, while skipping the question costs you nothing. If you are torn between two parts, and neither correction feels certain, leave the question and use the time on a comprehension question you can answer from the passage.

Can I attempt the English section in Hindi instead?

Yes. In the RRB Mains, the English/Hindi Language section is a choice — you attempt either English or Hindi, not both. Choose the language you are stronger in and stick with it for the whole section. If you choose Hindi, the error spotting, cloze and comprehension questions are all in Hindi. This set is for candidates who choose English.

What is the difference between "the number of" and "a number of"?

"The number of" is singular and takes a singular verb: "The number of branches has increased". "A number of" is plural and takes a plural verb: "A number of customers were waiting". The article decides the verb — "the" makes it one number, "a" makes it many people — and the exam tests this pair directly, as in Q9 of this set.

How do I handle "one of the" sentences?

The structure is "one of the + plural noun", and two rules follow. First, the noun after "of" is always plural: "one of the officers", never "one of the officer". Second, a verb after "who" or "that" agrees with that plural noun: "one of the officers who have been selected", as in Q2, and "one of the few officers who are known", as in Q15. Get both halves right and these questions are free marks.

Should I attempt error spotting first in the English section?

Yes, for most candidates. Error spotting questions are the fastest marks in the section — a known rule answers one in under 30 seconds — and doing them first warms up your grammar for the cloze test. Leave the reading comprehension passage for the middle of the section, when you are warmed up but still fresh, and keep the longest questions for last.

Practice Next

Sources: IBPS RRB PO and IBPS RRB Clerk Mains exam patterns as per the official notifications for the 2026 cycle; all sentences and questions in this set are original and written for this page. As of 6 November 2026.

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