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SBI Clerk 2025 Prelims Memory-Based Paper 20 September Shift 1 with Answers

Exam date
20 September 2025
Shift
Shift 1
Source
Memory-based (candidate recall)

SBI does not publish question papers or answer keys. These papers are rebuilt from candidates' recall of the shift, written fresh and fully re-checked.

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English - Reading Comprehension (Q1–10)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions. Some words are highlighted in quotes to help you answer. The Global Ocean Summit, held in Rio de Janeiro, brought together delegates from 72 countries to confront the alarming rise in ocean pollution. The meeting stressed how urgently marine ecosystems need protection and placed before the world facts that demanded immediate action. One of the leading voices was Dr. Samuel Okafor, a marine biologist from Lagos, who presented years of research on the destruction of coral reefs. He showed that untreated sewage and growing volumes of industrial waste have caused large-scale bleaching of reefs and the disappearance of several marine species. A healthy reef, he argued, is essential for keeping the balance of marine life and for sustaining the 'deep' links between ocean species. The Japanese scientist Dr. Haruto Mori called for a sharp worldwide cut in the use of plastic. His data showed that microplastics, which come from single-use packaging and industrial debris, are entering the marine food chain and finally reaching human diets. He backed the global call to phase out single-use plastics and replace them with biodegradable materials, saying this 'approach' was vital for the health of both sea life and people. Dr. Claire Benson, a researcher from Australia, spoke about oil spills and chemical waste, explaining how they have disturbed the breeding of many marine species and poisoned important stretches of ocean. The figures shared at the summit were striking. More than eight million tonnes of plastic waste enter the oceans every year. Microplastics have been found in over eighty per cent of the marine species studied, and the health of coral reefs worldwide has declined by about forty per cent because of pollution and warmer seas. Delegates agreed on the need to adopt biodegradable alternatives, enforce stricter rules on industrial waste and promote renewable energy to reduce contamination. From Mumbai to Oslo, leaders pledged to face the challenge together and to protect the seas through ________ and sustained effort. The summit closed with a promise of new research and global awareness campaigns.

    Q1.What was the main focus of Dr. Okafor's research?

    • AThe role of warmer seas in changing ocean currents
    • BThe impact of renewable energy projects on the deep sea
    • CThe effect of oil spills on the breeding of fish
    • DThe effect of sewage and industrial waste on coral reefs and marine species
    • EThe presence of microplastics in seafood

    Answer: (D) The effect of sewage and industrial waste on coral reefs and marine species

    Paragraph 2: Dr. Okafor's research showed that untreated sewage and industrial waste have caused bleaching of reefs and the loss of marine species.

  2. Q2.Where was the Global Ocean Summit held?

    • ALagos
    • BRio de Janeiro
    • CMumbai
    • DOslo
    • ETokyo

    Answer: (B) Rio de Janeiro

    The first sentence says the summit was held in Rio de Janeiro. Lagos is Dr. Okafor's home city, and Mumbai and Oslo are mentioned only in the pledge.

  3. Q3.What did Dr. Mori support to tackle ocean pollution?

    • ABuilding artificial reefs
    • BCleaning up oil spills with chemicals
    • CStricter rules on industrial waste disposal
    • DReplacing single-use plastics with biodegradable materials
    • EMore research on deep-sea mining

    Answer: (D) Replacing single-use plastics with biodegradable materials

    Paragraph 3: he backed the call to phase out single-use plastics and replace them with biodegradable materials.

  4. Q4.Which fact from the summit shows how widespread microplastic pollution has become?

    • AMicroplastics have been found in over eighty per cent of the marine species studied.
    • BOil spills have disturbed the breeding of marine species.
    • CSewage has bleached coral reefs.
    • DReef health has fallen by about forty per cent.
    • EOver eight million tonnes of plastic enter the oceans each year.

    Answer: (A) Microplastics have been found in over eighty per cent of the marine species studied.

    The figure about microplastics specifically is that they were found in over eighty per cent of the species studied. The other facts concern total plastic waste, reefs or oil spills.

  5. Q5.What did the leaders 'from Mumbai to Oslo' pledge?

    • ATo create new marine reserves
    • BTo ban fishing for ten years
    • CTo fund deep-sea mining research
    • DTo stop all oil drilling
    • ETo face the challenge of ocean pollution together and protect the seas

    Answer: (E) To face the challenge of ocean pollution together and protect the seas

    The last paragraph says leaders pledged to face the challenge together and protect the seas.

  6. Q6.Which of the following statements is/are incorrect according to the passage? (A) Dr. Okafor linked sewage and industrial waste to coral bleaching. (B) The summit was held in Oslo. (C) Dr. Mori called for a worldwide cut in plastic use.

    • AOnly A
    • BOnly B
    • COnly C
    • DBoth B and C
    • EAll A, B and C

    Answer: (B) Only B

    A and C are stated in the passage. B is incorrect: the summit was held in Rio de Janeiro; Oslo is mentioned only in the pledge.

  7. Q7.Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage? (A) Dr. Benson explained how oil spills and chemical waste have disturbed the breeding of marine species. (B) Dr. Mori's talk was mainly about coral bleaching caused by warmer seas. (C) Leaders pledged to work together against ocean pollution.

    • AOnly A
    • BOnly B
    • CBoth A and C
    • DOnly C
    • EAll A, B and C

    Answer: (C) Both A and C

    A and C are stated. B is wrong: Dr. Mori spoke about plastics and microplastics, not coral bleaching.

  8. Q8.Which word is closest in meaning to 'deep' as used in the passage ('the deep links between ocean species')?

    • Adark
    • Bshallow
    • Cprofound
    • Dbottomless
    • Edistant

    Answer: (C) profound

    Here 'deep links' means strong, far-reaching connections, i.e. profound. 'Bottomless' and 'dark' refer to physical depth, which is not the sense here.

  9. Q9.Which word best fills the blank in the last paragraph ('to protect the seas through ________ and sustained effort')?

    • Areluctant
    • Bcollective
    • Cisolated
    • Dfragmented
    • Epersonal

    Answer: (B) collective

    Leaders pledged to face the challenge together, so their effort is collective. Isolated, fragmented, personal and reluctant contradict 'together'.

  10. Q10.Which word is closest in meaning to 'approach' as used in the passage?

    • Apathway
    • Bcontact
    • Cmethod
    • Darrival
    • Eentrance

    Answer: (C) method

    'This approach' refers to the plan of replacing plastics, i.e. a method or way of dealing with the problem.

English - Word Usage (Q11–11)

  1. Q11.A word is given in capitals and used in three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) in which it is used correctly. SOW (I) The farmers sow wheat in their fields before the winter rains. (II) He promised to sow the loose button back onto his shirt. (III) She plans to sow wildflower seeds in her backyard this spring.

    • AOnly I
    • BOnly II
    • CBoth I and III
    • DAll of these
    • EBoth II and III

    Answer: (C) Both I and III

    To sow means to plant seeds, so I and III are correct. Fixing a button with needle and thread is 'sew', so II is wrong.

English - Para Jumbles (Q12–16)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Rearrange the five sentences (A) to (E) to form a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions. (A) Their fresh ideas and steady upgrades soon won them customers across several regions. (B) Only a year later, in 1979, they improved the product's quality and appeal significantly. (C) In 1978, two ambitious friends launched a new soft drink, hoping to make a mark in a crowded market. (D) Within fifty years, the company was earning 150 million dollars in annual sales, capping a remarkable journey. (E) As the years went by, the brand's reputation grew and it became a trusted household name.

    Q12.Which sentence comes FIRST after rearrangement?

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • EE

    Answer: (C) C

    Correct order: C-B-A-E-D. C starts the story in 1978; B ('only a year later, in 1979') follows it; A describes the early growth; E moves on ('as the years went by'); D ends with the fifty-year result. First: C.

  2. Q13.Which sentence comes SECOND after rearrangement?

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • EE

    Answer: (B) B

    Correct order: C-B-A-E-D. C starts the story in 1978; B ('only a year later, in 1979') follows it; A describes the early growth; E moves on ('as the years went by'); D ends with the fifty-year result. Second: B.

  3. Q14.Which sentence comes THIRD after rearrangement?

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • EE

    Answer: (A) A

    Correct order: C-B-A-E-D. C starts the story in 1978; B ('only a year later, in 1979') follows it; A describes the early growth; E moves on ('as the years went by'); D ends with the fifty-year result. Third: A.

  4. Q15.Which sentence comes FOURTH after rearrangement?

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • EE

    Answer: (E) E

    Correct order: C-B-A-E-D. C starts the story in 1978; B ('only a year later, in 1979') follows it; A describes the early growth; E moves on ('as the years went by'); D ends with the fifty-year result. Fourth: E.

  5. Q16.Which sentence comes FIFTH (LAST) after rearrangement?

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • EE

    Answer: (D) D

    Correct order: C-B-A-E-D. C starts the story in 1978; B ('only a year later, in 1979') follows it; A describes the early growth; E moves on ('as the years went by'); D ends with the fifty-year result. Fifth: D.

English - Error Spotting (Q17–21)

  1. Q17.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. He agreed (A)/ to repair the broken gate (B)/ before the (C)/ guests was due to arrive. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (D) D

    'Guests' is plural, so the verb must be 'were': part (D) should read 'guests were due to arrive'.

  2. Q18.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The children ran (A)/ into the garden, (B)/ but the kite was already (C)/ too high to reach. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (E) No error

    Each part is correct: past tense throughout, 'too high to reach' is the right 'too + adjective + to-infinitive' pattern. No error.

  3. Q19.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. After filling in (A)/ the form, (B)/ you must submitting it (C)/ and pay the fee at the counter. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (C) C

    A modal verb ('must') is followed by the base form. Part (C) should be 'you must submit it'.

  4. Q20.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Neither the manager (A)/ nor the assistants was (B)/ informed about (C)/ the change this morning. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (B) B

    With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject, 'the assistants' (plural). Part (B) should be 'nor the assistants were'.

  5. Q21.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Despite of the rain, (A)/ the match (B)/ went ahead (C)/ as planned. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (A) A

    'Despite' is never followed by 'of' ('in spite of' is the other correct form). Part (A) should be 'Despite the rain'.

English - Fillers (Q22–26)

  1. Q22.Directions: Choose the word that fills the blank most appropriately. He ________ to the doctor's clinic last night.

    • Awent
    • Bgone
    • Cgoing
    • Dgoes
    • Ego

    Answer: (A) went

    'Last night' needs the simple past: 'He went to the doctor's clinic'. 'Gone' needs 'has/had', and the other forms are not past tense.

  2. Q23.Directions: Choose the word that fills the blank most appropriately. She handled the difficult question with ease and ________.

    • Aconfusion
    • Bgrace
    • Cdoubt
    • Danger
    • Edelay

    Answer: (B) grace

    'With ease and ...' calls for a positive quality that goes with ease: grace. Doubt, anger, delay and confusion contradict handling something with ease.

  3. Q24.Directions: Choose the word that fills the blank most appropriately. The striker missed the goal but still earned loud ________ from the crowd.

    • Apractice
    • Bregards
    • Cadvice
    • Dapplause
    • Epunishment

    Answer: (D) applause

    A crowd gives loud applause. 'Loud' cannot describe practice, regards or advice, and 'but still' rules out punishment.

  4. Q25.Directions: Choose the word that fills the blank most appropriately. The professor ended the lecture after a long class ________ on climate policy.

    • Araise
    • Brecord
    • Cdiscuss
    • Dattend
    • Edebate

    Answer: (E) debate

    After 'a long class' a noun is needed, and a class debate 'on climate policy' makes sense. 'Discuss' and 'attend' are verbs; 'raise' and 'record' do not fit the meaning.

  5. Q26.Directions: Choose the word that fills the blank most appropriately. After months of thought, he ________ sold his old car.

    • Ascarcely
    • Bfinally
    • Cextremely
    • Dextraneous
    • Epreviously

    Answer: (B) finally

    'After months of thought' points to the end of a long process: he finally sold it. 'Extraneous' is an adjective and the other adverbs do not fit the time sense.

English - Word Swap (Q27–30)

  1. Q27.Directions: Five words in the sentence are marked (A) to (E). Some of them may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange(s) that make the sentence correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. The gardener (A) watered the plants (B) every morning before the sun (C) grew too hot, so the leaves (D) stayed fresh all summer (E).

    • AA-B
    • BB-D
    • CC-E
    • DA-B and C-D
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (E) No interchange required

    The sentence is already correct and meaningful, so no interchange is required.

  2. Q28.Directions: Five words in the sentence are marked (A) to (E). Some of them may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange(s) that make the sentence correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. The chef cooked (A) the vegetables (B) after he had washed (C) the dinner (D) for the guests (E).

    • AB-D
    • BA-E
    • CB-E
    • DA-D and B-C
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (A) B-D

    Swapping B and D gives: 'The chef cooked the dinner after he had washed the vegetables for the guests.' None of the other options gives a sensible sentence.

  3. Q29.Directions: Five words in the sentence are marked (A) to (E). Some of them may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange(s) that make the sentence correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. Because of the late (A) traffic, he reached the station (B) heavy (C) and missed his train (D) to Pune (E).

    • AB-D
    • BA-B and C-D
    • CA-C
    • DA-E
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (C) A-C

    Swapping A and C gives: 'Because of the heavy traffic, he reached the station late and missed his train to Pune.'

  4. Q30.Directions: Five words in the sentence are marked (A) to (E). Some of them may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange(s) that make the sentence correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. The book (A) wrote the author (B) in just six months, and the publisher (C) printed the readers (D) for eager copies (E).

    • AA-B
    • BD-E
    • CA-C and D-E
    • DA-B and D-E
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (D) A-B and D-E

    Two swaps are needed: A-B ('The author wrote the book') and D-E ('printed the copies for eager readers'). Answer: A-B and D-E.

Quant - Arithmetic - Profit and Loss (Q31–31)

  1. Q31.The cost price of article B is Rs. 200 more than that of article A. A is sold at a 20% profit and B at a 20% loss. If the total selling price of A and B is Rs. 760, find the cost price of A.

    • ARs. 300
    • BRs. 350
    • CRs. 200
    • DRs. 400
    • ERs. 500

    Answer: (A) Rs. 300

    Let CP of A = x. 1.2x + 0.8(x + 200) = 760, so 2x + 160 = 760 and x = Rs. 300.

Quant - Arithmetic - Speed and Distance (Q32–32)

  1. Q32.A bus covers 320 km in 5 hours, and the speed of a car is 3/8 of the speed of the bus. What is the ratio of the distance covered by the bus in 6 hours to the distance covered by the car in 5 hours?

    • A16 : 9
    • B5 : 16
    • C17 : 5
    • D16 : 7
    • E16 : 5

    Answer: (E) 16 : 5

    Bus = 64 km/h, car = 24 km/h. Bus in 6 h = 384 km, car in 5 h = 120 km. 384 : 120 = 16 : 5.

Quant - Arithmetic - Simple Interest (Q33–33)

  1. Q33.Rs. 2,000 is invested in scheme A at 5% p.a. simple interest for 8 years, and Rs. P in scheme B at 10% p.a. simple interest for 5 years. If the interests from A and B are in the ratio 16 : 15, find P.

    • ARs. 3,000
    • BRs. 1,200
    • CRs. 1,500
    • DRs. 2,500
    • ERs. 1,000

    Answer: (C) Rs. 1,500

    Interest from A = 2,000 x 5 x 8/100 = Rs. 800, so interest from B = 800 x 15/16 = Rs. 750 = P x 10 x 5/100. P = Rs. 1,500.

Quant - Arithmetic - Pipes and Cisterns (Q34–34)

  1. Q34.Pipes A, B and C can each fill a tank alone in 5 hours, 6 hours and 30 hours respectively. How long will all three take to fill it together?

    • A1.5 hours
    • B4.5 hours
    • C3 hours
    • D2.5 hours
    • E3.5 hours

    Answer: (D) 2.5 hours

    Together per hour: 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/30 = (6 + 5 + 1)/30 = 12/30 = 2/5. Time = 5/2 = 2.5 hours.

Quant - Arithmetic - Boats and Streams (Q35–35)

  1. Q35.A boat takes 2.5 hours longer to cover 90 km upstream than to cover the same distance downstream. If the speeds of the boat in still water and of the stream are in the ratio 5 : 1, find the speed of the boat in still water.

    • A30 km/h
    • B45 km/h
    • C10 km/h
    • D25 km/h
    • E15 km/h

    Answer: (E) 15 km/h

    Let speeds be 5k and k. Upstream = 4k, downstream = 6k. 90/4k - 90/6k = 2.5, so 7.5/k = 2.5 and k = 3. Speed in still water = 15 km/h.

Quant - Arithmetic - Average (Q36–36)

  1. Q36.For an event, A, B, C and D each contributed Rs. 400. E contributed Rs. 200 more than the average contribution of all five. Find the total amount contributed by all five.

    • ARs. 4,000
    • BRs. 4,800
    • CRs. 2,000
    • DRs. 2,250
    • ERs. 3,200

    Answer: (D) Rs. 2,250

    Let the total be T. E = T/5 + 200, so T = 1,600 + T/5 + 200. 4T/5 = 1,800, T = Rs. 2,250.

Quant - Arithmetic - Linear Equations (Q37–37)

  1. Q37.On a Sunday, 70 adults and children visited a zoo. An adult ticket costs Rs. 50 and a child ticket Rs. 25. If the zoo collected Rs. 2,850 that day, how many adults visited?

    • A48
    • B52
    • C44
    • D54
    • E42

    Answer: (C) 44

    If all 70 were children, collection = Rs. 1,750. Each adult adds Rs. 25 more, so adults = (2,850 - 1,750)/25 = 44.

Quant - Arithmetic - Mixture (Q38–38)

  1. Q38.A 200-litre mixture of milk and water contains 40% water. 20 litres of the mixture is taken out and then x litres of water is added, after which water makes up 50% of the mixture. Find x.

    • A36
    • B54
    • C48
    • D32
    • E40

    Answer: (A) 36

    After removing 20 L: 180 L with water 72 L and milk 108 L. (72 + x)/(180 + x) = 1/2 gives x = 36.

Quant - Arithmetic - Partnership (Q39–39)

  1. Q39.Phool and Jaya start a business with Rs. 6,400 and Rs. 11,200 respectively. Phool leaves after X months, while Jaya stays for the whole year. The total annual profit is twice Phool's investment, and Phool's share is Rs. 3,840. Find X.

    • A10
    • B9
    • C7
    • D8
    • E6

    Answer: (B) 9

    Total profit = Rs. 12,800, so Jaya gets Rs. 8,960 and the ratio is 3,840 : 8,960 = 3 : 7. 6,400X : 11,200 x 12 = 3 : 7 gives X = 9.

Quant - Arithmetic - Percentage (Q40–40)

  1. Q40.In a school, 35% of the students took part in athletics, 20% in a quiz and the rest in arts. If 378 students took part in arts, what is the difference between the numbers in athletics and the quiz?

    • A122
    • B112
    • C96
    • D126
    • E116

    Answer: (D) 126

    Arts = 45% = 378, so total = 840. Athletics - quiz = 15% of 840 = 126.

Quant - Arithmetic - Ages (Q41–41)

  1. Q41.The present ages of Sarah and Farah are in the ratio 4 : 7. Marah is 12 years older than Sarah and 6 years younger than Farah. What was Farah's age four years ago?

    • A38 years
    • B32 years
    • C24 years
    • D30 years
    • E56 years

    Answer: (A) 38 years

    Farah - Sarah = 12 + 6 = 18 = 3 parts, so one part = 6. Farah = 42 now, 38 four years ago.

Quant - Arithmetic - Ratio and Proportion (Q42–42)

  1. Q42.X : (X + 50) = 5 : 7 and (X + 25) : (Y + 5) = 3 : 4. Find X + Y.

    • A240
    • B280
    • C320
    • D300
    • E360

    Answer: (C) 320

    7X = 5X + 250 gives X = 125. 150/(Y + 5) = 3/4 gives Y + 5 = 200, Y = 195. X + Y = 320.

Quant - Bar Graph DI (Q43–47)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The bar graph (given here as a table) shows the runs scored by two teams X and Y on three days of a week. Monday: X 375, Y 300 Tuesday: X 250, Y 175 Wednesday: X 400, Y 325

    Q43.What is the difference between the total runs scored by X and Y on Monday and the runs scored by X on Wednesday?

    • A250
    • B275
    • C300
    • D175
    • E200

    Answer: (B) 275

    Monday total = 375 + 300 = 675. 675 - 400 = 275.

  2. Q44.What is the ratio of the runs scored by Y on Tuesday to one-fifth of the runs scored by Y on Monday and Wednesday together?

    • A1 : 5
    • B2 : 1
    • C3 : 5
    • D2 : 5
    • E7 : 5

    Answer: (E) 7 : 5

    Y on Monday + Wednesday = 300 + 325 = 625; one-fifth = 125. 175 : 125 = 7 : 5.

  3. Q45.On Sunday, X scored 2/5 fewer runs than it scored on Wednesday. How many runs did X score on Sunday?

    • A270
    • B250
    • C300
    • D175
    • E240

    Answer: (E) 240

    2/5 less than 400 = 400 x 3/5 = 240.

  4. Q46.The average of the runs scored by Y on Wednesday and Saturday is 330. Y's Saturday score is what percent more than X's score on Tuesday?

    • A20%
    • B34%
    • C25%
    • D30%
    • E15%

    Answer: (B) 34%

    Y on Saturday = 2 x 330 - 325 = 335. (335 - 250)/250 x 100 = 34% more.

  5. Q47.What is the total number of runs scored by Y over the three days?

    • A800
    • B650
    • C775
    • D700
    • E875

    Answer: (A) 800

    300 + 175 + 325 = 800.

Quant - Table DI (Q48–52)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The table shows the number of books sold by four stores A, B, C and D in January and February. Store | January | February A | 150 | 264 B | 224 | 280 C | 216 | 175 D | 156 | 128

    Q48.30% of the books sold by store A in January and 25% of those it sold in February were in a foreign language. How many foreign-language books did A sell in the two months?

    • A110
    • B150
    • C111
    • D113
    • E115

    Answer: (C) 111

    30% of 150 = 45 and 25% of 264 = 66. Total = 111.

  2. Q49.Store D sold only fiction and non-fiction books, in the ratio 3 : 1 over January and February together. What is the difference between the fiction books sold by D and the total books sold by A in January?

    • A20
    • B49
    • C75
    • D63
    • E15

    Answer: (D) 63

    D sold 156 + 128 = 284 books; fiction = 3/4 x 284 = 213. 213 - 150 = 63.

  3. Q50.What is the ratio of books sold by B to books sold by C in February?

    • A2 : 1
    • B8 : 5
    • C2 : 5
    • D3 : 1
    • E1 : 5

    Answer: (B) 8 : 5

    280 : 175 = 8 : 5.

  4. Q51.The number of books sold by A in February is what percent less than the total sold by B and C together in January?

    • A20%
    • B50%
    • C25%
    • D30%
    • E40%

    Answer: (E) 40%

    B + C in January = 224 + 216 = 440. (440 - 264)/440 x 100 = 40% less.

  5. Q52.In January, a new store E sold 20% more books than store A did. If E sold 500 books over January and February together, how many did it sell in February?

    • A320
    • B175
    • C200
    • D250
    • E180

    Answer: (A) 320

    E in January = 1.2 x 150 = 180, so February = 500 - 180 = 320.

Quant - Caselet DI (Q53–56)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Two food-delivery companies, Super Eat and Food Mart, deliver orders in three cities A, B and C. In city A, Food Mart delivers 40% more orders than Super Eat. Super Eat's orders in city B are one more than Food Mart's orders in city A. Super Eat's orders in city C are twice its orders in city A. Food Mart's orders in cities B and C are in the ratio 3 : 4. In all, Super Eat delivers 1,211 orders and Food Mart delivers 1,141 orders.

    Q53.What is the total number of orders delivered by both companies in city A?

    • A615
    • B620
    • C649
    • D660
    • E630

    Answer: (D) 660

    Let Super Eat in A = s. Food Mart in A = 1.4s, Super Eat in B = 1.4s + 1, Super Eat in C = 2s. s + 1.4s + 1 + 2s = 1,211, so s = 275. Super Eat: A 275, B 386, C 550. Food Mart: A 385, and B + C = 1,141 - 385 = 756 in the ratio 3 : 4, so B 324, C 432. 275 + 385 = 660.

  2. Q54.What is the ratio of Super Eat's orders in city B to Food Mart's orders in city B?

    • A81 : 50
    • B92 : 95
    • C193 : 162
    • D91 : 90
    • E21 : 11

    Answer: (C) 193 : 162

    Let Super Eat in A = s. Food Mart in A = 1.4s, Super Eat in B = 1.4s + 1, Super Eat in C = 2s. s + 1.4s + 1 + 2s = 1,211, so s = 275. Super Eat: A 275, B 386, C 550. Food Mart: A 385, and B + C = 1,141 - 385 = 756 in the ratio 3 : 4, so B 324, C 432. 386 : 324 = 193 : 162.

  3. Q55.What is the difference between Super Eat's orders in city A and in city C?

    • A275
    • B200
    • C250
    • D180
    • E320

    Answer: (A) 275

    Let Super Eat in A = s. Food Mart in A = 1.4s, Super Eat in B = 1.4s + 1, Super Eat in C = 2s. s + 1.4s + 1 + 2s = 1,211, so s = 275. Super Eat: A 275, B 386, C 550. Food Mart: A 385, and B + C = 1,141 - 385 = 756 in the ratio 3 : 4, so B 324, C 432. 550 - 275 = 275.

  4. Q56.In a new city E, Super Eat delivers 25% more orders than Food Mart delivers in city B. Super Eat's orders in E are approximately what percent of the total orders of both companies in city A?

    • A40.11%
    • B20.11%
    • C66.66%
    • D61.25%
    • E61.36%

    Answer: (E) 61.36%

    Let Super Eat in A = s. Food Mart in A = 1.4s, Super Eat in B = 1.4s + 1, Super Eat in C = 2s. s + 1.4s + 1 + 2s = 1,211, so s = 275. Super Eat: A 275, B 386, C 550. Food Mart: A 385, and B + C = 1,141 - 385 = 756 in the ratio 3 : 4, so B 324, C 432. Super Eat in E = 1.25 x 324 = 405. 405/660 x 100 = 61.36%.

Quant - Simplification (Q57–65)

  1. Q57.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) 13² + 384 ÷ 24 = ? - 5

    • A180
    • B200
    • C185
    • D190
    • E195

    Answer: (D) 190

    169 + 16 = 185, so ? = 185 + 5 = 190.

  2. Q58.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) √196 + 1560 ÷ 120 + 1475 = 1690 - ? + 512

    • A720
    • B680
    • C700
    • D710
    • E690

    Answer: (C) 700

    Left side = 14 + 13 + 1475 = 1502. 1690 + 512 - ? = 1502, so ? = 2202 - 1502 = 700.

  3. Q59.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) 12 × 45 - 2468 + ? = 532

    • A2440
    • B2460
    • C2480
    • D2360
    • E2500

    Answer: (B) 2460

    12 x 45 = 540. 540 - 2468 = -1928, so ? = 532 + 1928 = 2460.

  4. Q60.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) 1287 ÷ 13 + 1640 ÷ 8 = 420 - ?

    • A136
    • B106
    • C116
    • D126
    • E96

    Answer: (C) 116

    99 + 205 = 304, so ? = 420 - 304 = 116.

  5. Q61.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) 2520 ÷ 24 + 18 + 1977 = ?

    • A2120
    • B2100
    • C2090
    • D2110
    • E2080

    Answer: (B) 2100

    105 + 18 + 1977 = 2100.

  6. Q62.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) 2/3 of 5/7 of ? = 600

    • A1120
    • B1680
    • C1050
    • D1260
    • E1400

    Answer: (D) 1260

    (2/3) x (5/7) = 10/21, so ? = 600 x 21/10 = 1260.

  7. Q63.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) 75% of ? = 41² - 1093

    • A784
    • B756
    • C812
    • D676
    • E841

    Answer: (A) 784

    41² = 1681, and 1681 - 1093 = 588. ? = 588 / 0.75 = 784.

  8. Q64.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) 36% of 175 + 44% of 225 = ?

    • A166
    • B154
    • C172
    • D158
    • E162

    Answer: (E) 162

    36% of 175 = 63 and 44% of 225 = 99. Total = 162.

  9. Q65.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) 3/4 of 8/9 of 5/6 of 162 = ?

    • A80
    • B90
    • C96
    • D108
    • E72

    Answer: (B) 90

    5/6 of 162 = 135; 8/9 of 135 = 120; 3/4 of 120 = 90.

Reasoning - Inequality (Q66–68)

  1. Q66.Directions: Assuming the statements to be true, decide which conclusion(s) definitely follow. Statements: M > K ≥ D = F < N ≤ P = W < Z = H ≥ J Conclusions: I. F < H II. K > J

    • AOnly conclusion I is true
    • BOnly conclusion II is true
    • CEither conclusion I or II is true
    • DBoth conclusions I and II are true
    • ENeither conclusion I nor II is true

    Answer: (A) Only conclusion I is true

    I: F < N ≤ P = W < Z = H, so F < H is true. II: K and J are connected only through F < ... and Z = H ≥ J, with opposite signs along the chain (K ≥ D = F < ... H ≥ J), so no definite relation: II is not true. Only I.

  2. Q67.Directions: Assuming the statements to be true, decide which conclusion(s) definitely follow. Statements: B ≤ C < D = E < F ≥ G = H > J Conclusions: I. G < D II. H < F

    • AOnly conclusion I is true
    • BOnly conclusion II is true
    • CEither conclusion I or II is true
    • DBoth conclusions I and II are true
    • ENeither conclusion I nor II is true

    Answer: (E) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

    I: D < F ≥ G gives opposite signs, so G and D have no definite relation. II: F ≥ G = H gives F ≥ H, which allows F = H, so H < F is not definite. Neither is true.

  3. Q68.Directions: Assuming the statements to be true, decide which conclusion(s) definitely follow. Statements: T ≥ U > V; V ≤ W = X < Y Conclusions: I. V < X II. V = X

    • AOnly conclusion I is true
    • BOnly conclusion II is true
    • CEither conclusion I or II is true
    • DBoth conclusions I and II are true
    • ENeither conclusion I nor II is true

    Answer: (C) Either conclusion I or II is true

    From V ≤ W = X we get V ≤ X. Neither V < X nor V = X is definite on its own, but one of them must be true, so either I or II is true.

Reasoning - Floor Puzzle (Q69–73)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on different floors of an eight-floor building. The ground-level floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on up to the top floor, 8. G lives on a prime-numbered floor, two floors above A. Exactly four floors are between the floors of A and E. The number of floors above A equals the number of floors below H. More than three floors are between the floors of H and D. F lives above B but below C. B does not live immediately above D.

    Q69.Who lives on the sixth floor?

    • AF
    • BB
    • CH
    • DE
    • EC

    Answer: (D) E

    Since G is on a prime floor two above A, A is on floor 1, 3 or 5. Floors above A = floors below H means H = 9 - A, and four floors between A and E means E = A + 5 (A must be 1 or 3). A = 3 would put G on 5, E on 8 and H on 6; D would then have to be on floor 1, and B, F, C would fill floors 2, 4, 7, putting B immediately above D, which is not allowed. So A = 1, G = 3, E = 6, H = 8, D = 2 (more than three floors from H, and floor 1 is taken). B, F, C fill floors 4, 5, 7 in that order. Final (floor 1 to 8): A, D, G, B, F, E, C, H. Floor 6: E.

  2. Q70.Between which pair of persons is there exactly one floor?

    • AE and F
    • BC and E
    • CA and G
    • DF and D
    • EH and B

    Answer: (C) A and G

    Since G is on a prime floor two above A, A is on floor 1, 3 or 5. Floors above A = floors below H means H = 9 - A, and four floors between A and E means E = A + 5 (A must be 1 or 3). A = 3 would put G on 5, E on 8 and H on 6; D would then have to be on floor 1, and B, F, C would fill floors 2, 4, 7, putting B immediately above D, which is not allowed. So A = 1, G = 3, E = 6, H = 8, D = 2 (more than three floors from H, and floor 1 is taken). B, F, C fill floors 4, 5, 7 in that order. Final (floor 1 to 8): A, D, G, B, F, E, C, H. A (1) and G (3) have floor 2 between them. C-E and E-F are adjacent, F-D have two floors between, H-B have three.

  3. Q71.How many floors are there between the floors of H and F?

    • ATwo
    • BOne
    • CFive
    • DFour
    • EThree

    Answer: (A) Two

    Since G is on a prime floor two above A, A is on floor 1, 3 or 5. Floors above A = floors below H means H = 9 - A, and four floors between A and E means E = A + 5 (A must be 1 or 3). A = 3 would put G on 5, E on 8 and H on 6; D would then have to be on floor 1, and B, F, C would fill floors 2, 4, 7, putting B immediately above D, which is not allowed. So A = 1, G = 3, E = 6, H = 8, D = 2 (more than three floors from H, and floor 1 is taken). B, F, C fill floors 4, 5, 7 in that order. Final (floor 1 to 8): A, D, G, B, F, E, C, H. H is on 8 and F on 5; floors 6 and 7 lie between: two.

  4. Q72.Which of the following statements is/are false? I. H lives on a floor above E's floor. II. D lives on the bottom floor. III. F lives on the fourth floor.

    • AOnly I
    • BBoth II and III
    • COnly III
    • DBoth I and III
    • EOnly II

    Answer: (B) Both II and III

    Since G is on a prime floor two above A, A is on floor 1, 3 or 5. Floors above A = floors below H means H = 9 - A, and four floors between A and E means E = A + 5 (A must be 1 or 3). A = 3 would put G on 5, E on 8 and H on 6; D would then have to be on floor 1, and B, F, C would fill floors 2, 4, 7, putting B immediately above D, which is not allowed. So A = 1, G = 3, E = 6, H = 8, D = 2 (more than three floors from H, and floor 1 is taken). B, F, C fill floors 4, 5, 7 in that order. Final (floor 1 to 8): A, D, G, B, F, E, C, H. I is true (8 above 6). II is false (A is on floor 1). III is false (F is on floor 5). Answer: II and III.

  5. Q73.Who lives immediately above B?

    • AC
    • BD
    • CG
    • DE
    • EF

    Answer: (E) F

    Since G is on a prime floor two above A, A is on floor 1, 3 or 5. Floors above A = floors below H means H = 9 - A, and four floors between A and E means E = A + 5 (A must be 1 or 3). A = 3 would put G on 5, E on 8 and H on 6; D would then have to be on floor 1, and B, F, C would fill floors 2, 4, 7, putting B immediately above D, which is not allowed. So A = 1, G = 3, E = 6, H = 8, D = 2 (more than three floors from H, and floor 1 is taken). B, F, C fill floors 4, 5, 7 in that order. Final (floor 1 to 8): A, D, G, B, F, E, C, H. B is on floor 4 and F on floor 5.

Reasoning - Direction and Distance (Q74–76)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Point F is 13 m east of point Q. Point R is 5 m south of point P. Point S is 8 m west of point R. Point J is 12 m south of point S. Point M is 2 m west of point J. Point N is 11 m south of point Q. Point T is 6 m north of point F and 10 m west of point P.

    Q74.In which direction is point T with respect to point M?

    • ANorth
    • BEast
    • CNorth-east
    • DSouth
    • ENorth-west

    Answer: (A) North

    Take Q as (0, 0) with east as +x and north as +y: F (13, 0), T (13, 6), P (23, 6), R (23, 1), S (15, 1), J (15, -11), M (13, -11), N (0, -11). T (13, 6) and M (13, -11) have the same x-value and T is higher, so T is north of M (17 m).

  2. Q75.What is the shortest distance between point R and point M?

    • A22 m
    • B12 m
    • C√245 m
    • D13 m
    • E√244 m

    Answer: (E) √244 m

    Take Q as (0, 0) with east as +x and north as +y: F (13, 0), T (13, 6), P (23, 6), R (23, 1), S (15, 1), J (15, -11), M (13, -11), N (0, -11). R - M = (10, 12). Distance = √(100 + 144) = √244 m.

  3. Q76.How far and in which direction is point M from point N?

    • A11 m North
    • B15 m East
    • C√290 m North-east
    • D13 m East
    • E13 m West

    Answer: (D) 13 m East

    Take Q as (0, 0) with east as +x and north as +y: F (13, 0), T (13, 6), P (23, 6), R (23, 1), S (15, 1), J (15, -11), M (13, -11), N (0, -11). N (0, -11) and M (13, -11) are on the same line, M being 13 m to the east.

Reasoning - Word Series (Q77–81)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The questions are based on the five three-letter words given below. SPA ROB DUE KIT MAZ

    Q77.If the five words are arranged in dictionary order from left to right, which word will be second from the right end?

    • AMAZ
    • BSPA
    • CROB
    • DDUE
    • EKIT

    Answer: (C) ROB

    Dictionary order: DUE, KIT, MAZ, ROB, SPA. Second from the right is ROB.

  2. Q78.If every letter in each word is replaced by the next letter of the English alphabet, how many of the new words will contain at least one vowel?

    • ATwo
    • BThree
    • CFour
    • DFive
    • EOne

    Answer: (B) Three

    New words: TQB, SPC, EVF, LJU, NBA. EVF, LJU and NBA contain a vowel: three.

  3. Q79.If the letters within each word are arranged in reverse alphabetical order, how many words will remain unchanged?

    • ANone
    • BOne
    • CTwo
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (C) Two

    SPA (S > P > A) and ROB (R > O > B) are already in reverse alphabetical order; DUE, KIT and MAZ are not. Two words.

  4. Q80.If the first and second letters of each word are changed to the next letter of the English alphabet, how many words will have more than one vowel?

    • AThree
    • BFour
    • CNone
    • DOne
    • ETwo

    Answer: (D) One

    New words: TQA, SPB, EVE, LJT, NBZ. Only EVE has more than one vowel.

  5. Q81.If the first and third letters of each word are interchanged, how many words will end with a consonant?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • EFive

    Answer: (E) Five

    New words: APS, BOR, EUD, TIK, ZAM. All five end with a consonant.

Reasoning - Month and Date Puzzle (Q82–86)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born on either the 7th or the 20th of January, March, July and September of the same year, one person on each date (not necessarily in this order). D was born in a month that has an even number of days. Exactly two persons were born between D and F. C was born in July, immediately before H. A was born on an even-numbered date, immediately before G, and A and G were not born in the same month. E was born after B, but not in September.

    Q82.Who was born on 7th September?

    • AA
    • BD
    • CF
    • DH
    • ENone of these

    Answer: (D) H

    D must be in September (30 days). If C and H were on 7 and 20 July, D would be on 7 September with F on 20 March, A and G would take 20 January and 7 March, and E would be left on 7 January before B, which is not allowed. So C is on 20 July and H on 7 September, with D on 20 September and F (two persons between) on 7 July. A on the 20th immediately before G in a different month leaves only A on 20 January and G on 7 March. B and E take 7 January and 20 March with E after B. Final order: B (7 Jan), A (20 Jan), G (7 Mar), E (20 Mar), F (7 Jul), C (20 Jul), H (7 Sep), D (20 Sep). 7 September: H.

  2. Q83.How many persons were born between A and D?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • EMore than four

    Answer: (E) More than four

    D must be in September (30 days). If C and H were on 7 and 20 July, D would be on 7 September with F on 20 March, A and G would take 20 January and 7 March, and E would be left on 7 January before B, which is not allowed. So C is on 20 July and H on 7 September, with D on 20 September and F (two persons between) on 7 July. A on the 20th immediately before G in a different month leaves only A on 20 January and G on 7 March. B and E take 7 January and 20 March with E after B. Final order: B (7 Jan), A (20 Jan), G (7 Mar), E (20 Mar), F (7 Jul), C (20 Jul), H (7 Sep), D (20 Sep). Between A (20 Jan) and D (20 Sep): G, E, F, C and H, i.e. five.

  3. Q84.Who was born immediately before F?

    • AG
    • BE
    • CA
    • DB
    • EC

    Answer: (B) E

    D must be in September (30 days). If C and H were on 7 and 20 July, D would be on 7 September with F on 20 March, A and G would take 20 January and 7 March, and E would be left on 7 January before B, which is not allowed. So C is on 20 July and H on 7 September, with D on 20 September and F (two persons between) on 7 July. A on the 20th immediately before G in a different month leaves only A on 20 January and G on 7 March. B and E take 7 January and 20 March with E after B. Final order: B (7 Jan), A (20 Jan), G (7 Mar), E (20 Mar), F (7 Jul), C (20 Jul), H (7 Sep), D (20 Sep). E (20 March) is immediately before F (7 July).

  4. Q85.On which date was C born?

    • A20 July
    • B20 March
    • C7 September
    • D20 January
    • E7 July

    Answer: (A) 20 July

    D must be in September (30 days). If C and H were on 7 and 20 July, D would be on 7 September with F on 20 March, A and G would take 20 January and 7 March, and E would be left on 7 January before B, which is not allowed. So C is on 20 July and H on 7 September, with D on 20 September and F (two persons between) on 7 July. A on the 20th immediately before G in a different month leaves only A on 20 January and G on 7 March. B and E take 7 January and 20 March with E after B. Final order: B (7 Jan), A (20 Jan), G (7 Mar), E (20 Mar), F (7 Jul), C (20 Jul), H (7 Sep), D (20 Sep). C was born on 20 July.

  5. Q86.The number of persons born before G is the same as the number of persons born after whom?

    • AA
    • BB
    • CE
    • DF
    • EC

    Answer: (E) C

    D must be in September (30 days). If C and H were on 7 and 20 July, D would be on 7 September with F on 20 March, A and G would take 20 January and 7 March, and E would be left on 7 January before B, which is not allowed. So C is on 20 July and H on 7 September, with D on 20 September and F (two persons between) on 7 July. A on the 20th immediately before G in a different month leaves only A on 20 January and G on 7 March. B and E take 7 January and 20 March with E after B. Final order: B (7 Jan), A (20 Jan), G (7 Mar), E (20 Mar), F (7 Jul), C (20 Jul), H (7 Sep), D (20 Sep). Two persons (B, A) were born before G. Two persons (H, D) were born after C.

Reasoning - Coding-Decoding (Q87–87)

  1. Q87.In a certain code language, PLANET is written as OMZODU and GROWTH is written as FSNXSI. How is SILVER written in that code?

    • ARJKUDS
    • BRHKWDQ
    • CSJKWES
    • DRJKWDS
    • ETHMUFQ

    Answer: (D) RJKWDS

    Letters in odd positions move one step back and letters in even positions one step forward (P-1 = O, L+1 = M, A-1 = Z, ...). SILVER: S-1 = R, I+1 = J, L-1 = K, V+1 = W, E-1 = D, R+1 = S, giving RJKWDS.

Reasoning - Syllogism (Q88–90)

  1. Q88.Directions: Take the statements to be true even if they seem to differ from known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Only a few pens are blues. Some blues are inks. All inks are papers. Conclusions: I. Some inks being pens is a possibility. II. Some blues are not papers.

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
    • EBoth conclusions I and II follow

    Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows

    Nothing prevents inks from overlapping pens, so I (a possibility) follows. All blues could be papers, so 'some blues are not papers' is not certain: II does not follow. Only I.

  2. Q89.Directions: Take the statements to be true even if they seem to differ from known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Only a few doctors are smart. All nurses are kind. Some smart are not nurses. Conclusions: I. Some doctors are not smart. II. All smart being kind is a possibility.

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
    • EBoth conclusions I and II follow

    Answer: (E) Both conclusions I and II follow

    'Only a few doctors are smart' means some doctors are not smart, so I follows. The smart people who are not nurses can still be kind, and the rest may be nurses (who are all kind), so II is possible. Both follow.

  3. Q90.Directions: Take the statements to be true even if they seem to differ from known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Only a few melons are seeds. All seeds are plants. No plant is a stone. Conclusions: I. Some melons are stones. II. Some melons are not stones.

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
    • EBoth conclusions I and II follow

    Answer: (B) Only conclusion II follows

    The melons that are seeds are plants and therefore not stones, so II follows. Whether any other melon is a stone is unknown, so I does not follow. Only II.

Reasoning - Order and Sequence Puzzle (Q91–95)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H bought gifts one after another (not necessarily in this order). Four persons bought gifts after G. Exactly two persons bought gifts between G and C. A bought a gift immediately after C. Exactly five persons bought gifts between A and E. F bought a gift three places before H. At least one person bought a gift between D and H.

    Q91.Who bought a gift exactly midway between D and C?

    • AF
    • BG
    • CB
    • DE
    • EH

    Answer: (B) G

    G is 4th (four after him). C is 1st or 7th. If C were 1st, A would be 2nd and E 8th; F and H would then take 3rd and 6th, leaving D on 5th or 7th, next to H, which breaks the last clue. so C is 7th, A 8th and E 2nd. F three before H: F 3rd, H 6th (F 5th, H 8th is impossible). D cannot be next to H, so D is 1st and B 5th. Final order: D, E, F, G, B, H, C, A. D is 1st and C is 7th; the person in the middle (4th) is G.

  2. Q92.How many persons bought gifts between C and E?

    • AFour
    • BNone
    • COne
    • DTwo
    • EThree

    Answer: (A) Four

    G is 4th (four after him). C is 1st or 7th. If C were 1st, A would be 2nd and E 8th; F and H would then take 3rd and 6th, leaving D on 5th or 7th, next to H, which breaks the last clue. so C is 7th, A 8th and E 2nd. F three before H: F 3rd, H 6th (F 5th, H 8th is impossible). D cannot be next to H, so D is 1st and B 5th. Final order: D, E, F, G, B, H, C, A. E is 2nd and C is 7th: F, G, B and H are between them, i.e. four.

  3. Q93.Which of the following statements is true?

    • AH bought a gift after A.
    • BA was not the last person to buy a gift.
    • CExactly two persons bought gifts between D and G.
    • DF was the fifth person to buy a gift.
    • EB bought a gift immediately after G and before F.

    Answer: (C) Exactly two persons bought gifts between D and G.

    G is 4th (four after him). C is 1st or 7th. If C were 1st, A would be 2nd and E 8th; F and H would then take 3rd and 6th, leaving D on 5th or 7th, next to H, which breaks the last clue. so C is 7th, A 8th and E 2nd. F three before H: F 3rd, H 6th (F 5th, H 8th is impossible). D cannot be next to H, so D is 1st and B 5th. Final order: D, E, F, G, B, H, C, A. E and F are between D (1st) and G (4th). The other statements are false: A is last, H (6th) is before A, F is 3rd, and F is before G.

  4. Q94.Who bought a gift immediately after B?

    • AF
    • BG
    • CC
    • DA
    • EH

    Answer: (E) H

    G is 4th (four after him). C is 1st or 7th. If C were 1st, A would be 2nd and E 8th; F and H would then take 3rd and 6th, leaving D on 5th or 7th, next to H, which breaks the last clue. so C is 7th, A 8th and E 2nd. F three before H: F 3rd, H 6th (F 5th, H 8th is impossible). D cannot be next to H, so D is 1st and B 5th. Final order: D, E, F, G, B, H, C, A. B is 5th and H is 6th.

  5. Q95.How many persons bought gifts after F?

    • AFive
    • BSix
    • CTwo
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (A) Five

    G is 4th (four after him). C is 1st or 7th. If C were 1st, A would be 2nd and E 8th; F and H would then take 3rd and 6th, leaving D on 5th or 7th, next to H, which breaks the last clue. so C is 7th, A 8th and E 2nd. F three before H: F 3rd, H 6th (F 5th, H 8th is impossible). D cannot be next to H, so D is 1st and B 5th. Final order: D, E, F, G, B, H, C, A. F is 3rd, so five persons (G, B, H, C, A) bought after him.

Reasoning - Alphanumeric Series (Q96–96)

  1. Q96.If all the letters of the word 'IMPACTFUL' are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, how many letters will remain in the same position? If none, choose X.

    • AX
    • BOne
    • CTwo
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (A) X

    Alphabetical order: A C F I L M P T U. Compared position by position with I M P A C T F U L, no letter stays in its place. Answer: X.

Reasoning - Meaningful Word (Q97–97)

  1. Q97.Using the 3rd, 4th, 6th and 8th letters from the left of the word 'POWERFUL', a meaningful four-letter word is formed. What is the third letter from the left of that word? If more than one word can be formed, choose X; if none, choose Z.

    • AX
    • BZ
    • CW
    • DE
    • EF

    Answer: (D) E

    The letters are W, E, F and L. The only English word they make is FLEW, whose third letter is E.

Reasoning - Linear Seating Arrangement (Q98–100)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (20 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Some persons sit in a single row facing north. P sits at the extreme left end. N sits fourth to the right of P. Exactly two persons sit between N and G. G sits third to the left of K, and K sits second from one of the ends of the row. Exactly one person sits between K and Q. The number of persons between N and Q is one more than the number of persons between P and R.

    Q98.How many persons sit in the row?

    • A10
    • B12
    • C14
    • D11
    • E13

    Answer: (B) 12

    P is 1st and N is 5th. G is 2nd or 8th; G = 2 would put K on 5 (N's seat), so G is 8th and K is 11th. K is second from an end, so the row has 12 persons. Q is 9th or 13th; 13 is outside the row, so Q is 9th. Between N and Q there are 3 persons, so between P and R there are 2: R is 4th. Positions: P 1, R 4, N 5, G 8, Q 9, K 11, total 12. Total: 12.

  2. Q99.What is the position of N in the row?

    • AFifth from the right end
    • BEighth from the left end
    • CEighth from the right end
    • DNinth from the left end
    • ESeventh from the right end

    Answer: (C) Eighth from the right end

    P is 1st and N is 5th. G is 2nd or 8th; G = 2 would put K on 5 (N's seat), so G is 8th and K is 11th. K is second from an end, so the row has 12 persons. Q is 9th or 13th; 13 is outside the row, so Q is 9th. Between N and Q there are 3 persons, so between P and R there are 2: R is 4th. Positions: P 1, R 4, N 5, G 8, Q 9, K 11, total 12. N is 5th from the left, i.e. 12 - 5 + 1 = 8th from the right end.

  3. Q100.Who sits seventh to the right of R?

    • AAn unnamed person
    • BG
    • CQ
    • DK
    • EN

    Answer: (D) K

    P is 1st and N is 5th. G is 2nd or 8th; G = 2 would put K on 5 (N's seat), so G is 8th and K is 11th. K is second from an end, so the row has 12 persons. Q is 9th or 13th; 13 is outside the row, so Q is 9th. Between N and Q there are 3 persons, so between P and R there are 2: R is 4th. Positions: P 1, R 4, N 5, G 8, Q 9, K 11, total 12. R is 4th; seventh to the right is 11th, which is K.

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