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SBI Clerk 2025 Prelims Memory-Based Paper 21 September Shift 1 with Answers

Exam date
21 September 2025
Shift
Shift 1
Source
Memory-based (candidate recall)

SBI does not publish question papers or answer keys. These papers are rebuilt from candidates' recall of the shift, written fresh and fully re-checked.

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English - Fillers (Q1–2)

  1. Q1.Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Choose the word that fits the blank most appropriately. The road safety campaign ______ people of all age groups to raise awareness about responsible driving.

    • Asustained
    • Bpretended
    • Cmaintained
    • Dintended
    • Etargeted

    Answer: (E) targeted

    A campaign aimed at people of all ages 'targeted' them. Intended and pretended do not take a direct object in this sense, and sustained or maintained people makes no sense.

  2. Q2.Directions: Choose the word that fits the blank most appropriately. At the seminar, experts explained ______ policy makers could make education more accessible to rural children: by opening more village schools and training local teachers.

    • Awhat
    • Bwhom
    • Cwhen
    • Dwhere
    • Ehow

    Answer: (E) how

    The part after the colon describes a method (opening schools, training teachers), so the blank must ask about the means: 'how'. 'What' and 'whom' would need an object, and 'when' and 'where' ask about time and place, which the sentence does not give.

English - Error Spotting (Q3–7)

  1. Q3.Directions: Find the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. They needs (A)/ to submit the report (B)/ before the deadline (C)/ to avoid penalties. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (A) A

    The plural subject 'They' takes the plural verb 'need', not 'needs'. Part (A) should read 'They need'.

  2. Q4.Directions: Find the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. She is hard (A)/ to convince as she (B)/ is use (C)/ to having her opinions valued. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (C) C

    'Be used to + -ing' means 'be accustomed to'. Part (C) should be 'is used'.

  3. Q5.Directions: Find the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. She has being (A)/ working tirelessly (B)/ on the project (C)/ for the past two weeks. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (A) A

    The present perfect continuous is 'has been + -ing'. Part (A) should be 'She has been'.

  4. Q6.Directions: Find the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The manager said (A)/ that he will review (B)/ all the applications (C)/ by the end of the week. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (B) B

    In reported speech after a past reporting verb ('said'), 'will' changes to 'would'. Part (B) should be 'that he would review'.

  5. Q7.Directions: Find the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Neither the teacher (A)/ nor the students (B)/ was aware (C)/ of the sudden change in schedule. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (C) C

    With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. 'The students' is plural, so part (C) should be 'were aware'.

English - Reading Comprehension (Q8–17)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions. Several decades ago, Yusuf Qadri opened a small printing and bookbinding workshop in the old quarter of his city. At a time when many young entrepreneurs were turning to modern machines, he chose to begin with the traditional crafts he had learned from master binders. Every page that left his workshop was finished with such care that visitors often said it was impossible to find a single flaw in the delicate lettering and stitching. As the years passed, Yusuf brought his children and nephews into the business so that the craft would not die with him. In 1999 his children and siblings formally ______ the workshop, and they treated it as a family treasure to be guarded. They kept the old methods of hand-binding alive and even enriched them by adding engraved metal nameplates, so that every book carried an identity of its own. Craftsmen who had trained at the workshop needed no other certificate; the fact that they had learned their skill there was proof enough of their ability. Today, tourists who visit say the workshop looks like a living museum in which every shelf holds a story. The tradition continues with the same spirit. Sana, Yusuf's grandniece and the fourth generation of the family in the craft, now works beside her elders. The family has never relied on modern machinery, yet orders still arrive from collectors in many countries, drawn by the quiet charm and lasting beauty of hand-made books. The story of the Qadri workshop shows that true craftsmanship begins with passion and is sustained by patience. It stands as an example of how skill and dedication can turn simple paper, thread and leather into lasting works of art.

    Q8.Why did visitors find the pages produced at the workshop impressive?

    • AEach book was signed by a famous artist.
    • BThey were produced in very large numbers.
    • CThey were printed on advanced machines imported from abroad.
    • DThey had shiny metallic covers in a modern style.
    • EThey were finished with such care that no flaw could be found in them.

    Answer: (E) They were finished with such care that no flaw could be found in them.

    Paragraph 1: every page 'was finished with such care that visitors often said it was impossible to find a single flaw'. The workshop used no modern machines and did not mass-produce books.

  2. Q9.What can be inferred about the change of ownership in 1999?

    • AThe family kept the traditional methods while adding a personal touch of its own.
    • BIt marked a shift from hand-binding to digital printing.
    • CThe workshop lost its original character after the change.
    • DOutsiders were brought in to manage the workshop.
    • EIt was forced on the family by heavy financial losses.

    Answer: (A) The family kept the traditional methods while adding a personal touch of its own.

    After 1999 the family 'kept the old methods of hand-binding alive and even enriched them' with engraved nameplates. Nothing suggests losses, digital printing, a loss of character or outside managers.

  3. Q10.Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage? (A) Sana belongs to the latest generation of the family working in the craft. (B) In 1999 the workshop was sold to outside investors. (C) Engraved metal nameplates were added to give each book an identity.

    • AOnly A
    • BBoth A and B
    • CBoth B and C
    • DBoth A and C
    • EOnly C

    Answer: (D) Both A and C

    A (paragraph 3: Sana is the fourth generation) and C (paragraph 2) are correct. B is wrong: the workshop passed to Yusuf's children and siblings, not to outside investors.

  4. Q11.According to the passage, Yusuf Qadri: (A) started a small workshop based on traditional crafts (B) was the only child in his family (C) depended on government grants to run the workshop

    • AOnly A
    • BBoth A and C
    • COnly B
    • DBoth B and C
    • EOnly C

    Answer: (A) Only A

    Only A is stated. The passage mentions his siblings, so B is false, and it never mentions government grants.

  5. Q12.Which of the following best describes the workshop today?

    • AA business in decline facing losses
    • BA heritage site run by the government
    • CA training school for modern printing
    • DA high-tech printing house competing globally
    • EA living museum where the old craft is still practised

    Answer: (E) A living museum where the old craft is still practised

    Paragraph 3: tourists say it 'looks like a living museum', and the family still works there in the traditional way.

  6. Q13.Why, according to the passage, do collectors continue to place orders with the workshop?

    • AIt holds government-sponsored exhibitions.
    • BIt sells e-books along with printed books.
    • CIt uses the latest printing machines.
    • DThey are drawn by the quiet charm and lasting beauty of hand-made books.
    • EIt offers the lowest prices in the city.

    Answer: (D) They are drawn by the quiet charm and lasting beauty of hand-made books.

    Paragraph 3: orders arrive from collectors 'drawn by the quiet charm and lasting beauty of hand-made books'.

  7. Q14.Which phrase best fills the blank in paragraph 2?

    • Atook over
    • Bmodernised
    • Chanded back
    • Dlost control of
    • Ein addition to

    Answer: (A) took over

    The family formally became the owners of the workshop and then guarded it, so 'took over' fits. 'Handed back' and 'lost control of' contradict the sentence, 'in addition to' is not a verb, and 'modernised' contradicts the rest of the paragraph.

  8. Q15.Choose the word closest in meaning to 'looks' as used in the passage ('the workshop looks like a living museum').

    • Aobserves
    • Bappears
    • Cwatches
    • Dsearches
    • Eglances

    Answer: (B) appears

    Here 'looks like' means 'seems or appears to be'. Watches, searches, glances and observes are about the act of seeing.

  9. Q16.Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'begin' as used in the passage.

    • Atrivial
    • Blaunch
    • Cstart
    • Dinitiate
    • Ecease

    Answer: (E) cease

    'Begin' means to start; its opposite is 'cease' (stop). Start, initiate and launch are synonyms, and trivial is an adjective.

  10. Q17.In the sentence 'Craftsmen who had trained at the workshop needed no other certificate', the word 'needed' is closest in meaning to:

    • Agave
    • Bpurchased
    • Crequired
    • Dmonitored
    • Elocated

    Answer: (C) required

    'Needed no other certificate' means they required no further proof of skill. The other words do not fit.

English - Column Matching (Q18–18)

  1. Q18.Directions: Match the phrases in Column I with those in Column II to form meaningful sentences. Column I: (A) The old clock in the hallway (B) The children's laughter echoed (C) The nurse took the antiseptic from the bottle Column II: (D) through the empty playground. (E) and dabbed it on the cotton swab. (F) chimed softly at midnight.

    • AA-F, C-D, B-E
    • BA-F, B-E
    • CB-D, C-F
    • DC-E, A-F, B-D
    • EA-D

    Answer: (D) C-E, A-F, B-D

    The old clock in the hallway chimed softly at midnight (A-F). The children's laughter echoed through the empty playground (B-D). The nurse took the antiseptic from the bottle and dabbed it on the cotton swab (C-E). All three pairs are formed, which is option 4.

English - Cloze Test (Q19–24)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Choose the most suitable word for each blank in the passage. ____ (A) up in a small town, Meera fell in love with gardening as a child, during afternoons spent with her grandmother in their backyard. Her grandmother patiently taught her how to prepare the soil, sow seeds and water plants correctly. Watching tiny shoots ____ (B) from the soil gave Meera joy and a sense of responsibility. Over time, ____ (C) plants became more than a hobby; it became her way of staying close to nature. As she grew older, Meera noticed people ____ (D) parks and pathways with plastic bags and wrappers, harming the soil and the plants. This troubled her deeply. She ____ (E) that caring only for her own garden was not enough if the surroundings continued to suffer. With the ____ (F) of protecting nature, Meera organised clean-up drives and encouraged her neighbours to join. Her efforts turned a childhood passion into a movement for a greener neighbourhood.

    Q19.Which word fits blank (A)?

    • ALifting
    • BIncreasing
    • CGrowing
    • DElevating
    • ERising

    Answer: (C) Growing

    'Growing up' is the phrasal verb for passing one's childhood. The other words do not combine with 'up' in this sense.

  2. Q20.Which word fits blank (B)?

    • Avanish
    • Bemerge
    • Cdetain
    • Dreflect
    • Edeny

    Answer: (B) emerge

    Shoots 'emerge' (come out) from the soil. Detain, reflect and deny make no sense, and vanish would not give her joy.

  3. Q21.Which word fits blank (C)?

    • Asprinkling
    • Buprooting
    • Cselecting
    • Ddetaching
    • Enurturing

    Answer: (E) nurturing

    Caring for plants is 'nurturing' them; this is what became more than a hobby. The other words do not describe caring for plants.

  4. Q22.Which word fits blank (D)?

    • Ashowing
    • Bcleaning
    • Cdecorating
    • Dlittering
    • Eplanting

    Answer: (D) littering

    People who leave plastic bags and wrappers that harm the soil are 'littering' the parks. Decorating, planting and cleaning are positive, and showing makes no sense.

  5. Q23.Which word fits blank (E)?

    • Arealised
    • Bdenied
    • Cforgot
    • Dpretended
    • Erendered

    Answer: (A) realised

    She came to understand a fact, i.e. she 'realised' that caring for her own garden was not enough. Denied, forgot and pretended contradict what she then did, and rendered does not fit.

  6. Q24.Which word fits blank (F)?

    • Aaim
    • Bscheme
    • Cintuitive
    • Dplanned
    • Efeature

    Answer: (A) aim

    'With the aim of' means with the purpose of. Intuitive and planned are not nouns, and 'with the scheme/feature of protecting nature' is not idiomatic.

English - Word Rearrangement (Q25–27)

  1. Q25.Directions: The words marked (A), (B) and (C) may be in the wrong positions. Choose the order in which they should be placed (in the positions of A, B and C) to make the sentence correct. The disturbed (A) of the neighbour's (B) dog barking (C) us all night.

    • AACB
    • BBAC
    • CCAB
    • DCBA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (D) CBA

    Correct sentence: 'The barking of the neighbour's dog disturbed us all night.' Position A takes 'barking' (C), position B keeps 'neighbour's' (B) and position C takes 'disturbed' (A): CBA.

  2. Q26.Directions: The words marked (A), (B) and (C) may be in the wrong positions. Choose the order in which they should be placed (in the positions of A, B and C) to make the sentence correct. He got find (A) trying to lost (B) the address and finally asked (C) a passer-by for help.

    • AACB
    • BBAC
    • CCAB
    • DCBA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (B) BAC

    Correct sentence: 'He got lost trying to find the address and finally asked a passer-by for help.' Position A takes 'lost' (B), position B takes 'find' (A) and 'asked' (C) stays: BAC.

  3. Q27.Directions: The words marked (A), (B) and (C) may be in the wrong positions. Choose the order in which they should be placed (in the positions of A, B and C) to make the sentence correct. The cooled (A) shower scorching (B) the sudden (C) afternoon.

    • AACB
    • BBAC
    • CCAB
    • DCBA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (C) CAB

    Correct sentence: 'The sudden shower cooled the scorching afternoon.' Position A takes 'sudden' (C), position B takes 'cooled' (A) and position C takes 'scorching' (B): CAB.

English - Word Usage (Q28–28)

  1. Q28.Directions: A word is given, followed by three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) in which the word is used correctly. ASCEND (A) She tried to ascend the argument by lowering her voice and avoiding conflict. (B) The hot-air balloon began to ascend slowly into the clear sky. (C) The hikers began to ascend the steep mountain trail just after sunrise.

    • AOnly A
    • BBoth B and C
    • COnly C
    • DBoth A and C
    • EAll A, B and C

    Answer: (B) Both B and C

    'Ascend' means to go up or climb. B (a balloon rising) and C (climbing a trail) are correct. A is wrong: calming an argument is 'defusing' or 'de-escalating' it, not ascending it.

English - Sentence Rearrangement (Q29–30)

  1. Q29.Directions: The parts of a sentence are given in jumbled order. Choose the order that makes a meaningful sentence. (A) in the (B) his grandmother often tells him (C) freedom struggle (D) stories of his great-grandfather's role (E) of the 1940s

    • ANo rearrangement required
    • BCBEAD
    • CACEBD
    • DBDACE
    • EDCEBA

    Answer: (D) BDACE

    'His grandmother often tells him (B) stories of his great-grandfather's role (D) in the (A) freedom struggle (C) of the 1940s (E).' Order: BDACE.

  2. Q30.Directions: The parts of a sentence are given in jumbled order. Choose the order that makes a meaningful sentence. (A) sank behind (B) to watch the glowing sky (C) the shepherd stopped (D) the distant mountains (E) as the sun slowly

    • ANo rearrangement required
    • BCBEAD
    • CACEBD
    • DBDACE
    • EDCEBA

    Answer: (B) CBEAD

    'The shepherd stopped (C) to watch the glowing sky (B) as the sun slowly (E) sank behind (A) the distant mountains (D).' Order: CBEAD.

Quant - Line Graph DI (Q31–35)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The line graph (given here as a table) shows the number of visitors to five parks A, B, C, D and E on a Sunday. A: 20 | B: 32 | C: 26 | D: 40 | E: 24

    Q31.The total number of visitors to parks A and B is what percentage of the number of visitors to park D?

    • A100%
    • B105%
    • C130%
    • D120%
    • E125%

    Answer: (C) 130%

    A + B = 20 + 32 = 52. 52/40 x 100 = 130%.

  2. Q32.Find the difference between the number of visitors to parks A and E.

    • A8
    • B12
    • C24
    • D20
    • E4

    Answer: (E) 4

    E - A = 24 - 20 = 4.

  3. Q33.Find the ratio of the number of visitors to B and C together to the number of visitors to E.

    • A20:21
    • B12:29
    • C29:12
    • D15:17
    • E15:16

    Answer: (C) 29:12

    (32 + 26) : 24 = 58 : 24 = 29 : 12.

  4. Q34.Park F had 20% more visitors than park D on that Sunday. Find the difference between the number of visitors to parks E and F.

    • A24
    • B35
    • C20
    • D25
    • E10

    Answer: (A) 24

    F = 1.2 x 40 = 48. 48 - 24 = 24.

  5. Q35.The average number of visitors to park A on Sunday and Wednesday is 25. Find the number of visitors to park A on Wednesday.

    • A20
    • B35
    • C10
    • D30
    • E25

    Answer: (D) 30

    Total for the two days = 2 x 25 = 50. Wednesday = 50 - 20 = 30.

Quant - Table DI (Q36–40)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The table shows the number of students of two schools, A and B, who play three games. Cricket: A 20, B 35 Hockey: A 25, B 30 Football: A 24, B 36

    Q36.Find the ratio of the number of students of A who play cricket to the number of students of B who play football.

    • A9:5
    • B6:5
    • C6:7
    • D6:1
    • E5:9

    Answer: (E) 5:9

    20 : 36 = 5 : 9.

  2. Q37.Find the average of the number of students of A who play cricket and the number of students of B who play hockey.

    • A20
    • B25
    • C10
    • D5
    • E15

    Answer: (B) 25

    (20 + 30)/2 = 25.

  3. Q38.Find the total number of students of both schools who play hockey or cricket.

    • A110
    • B125
    • C120
    • D90
    • E100

    Answer: (A) 110

    Cricket 20 + 35 = 55; hockey 25 + 30 = 55. Total = 110.

  4. Q39.20% of the students of A who play cricket also play rugby. Find the difference between the number of students of A who play rugby and the number of students of B who play hockey.

    • A12
    • B26
    • C66
    • D28
    • E19

    Answer: (B) 26

    Rugby players = 20% of 20 = 4. 30 - 4 = 26.

  5. Q40.The number of students of both schools who play hockey is what percentage of 25% of the students of both schools who play football?

    • A355.70%
    • B388.67%
    • C666.67%
    • D366.67%
    • E309.69%

    Answer: (D) 366.67%

    Hockey = 25 + 30 = 55. Football = 24 + 36 = 60, and 25% of 60 = 15. 55/15 x 100 = 366.67% (approx.).

Quant - Caselet DI (Q41–45)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. There are three companies A, B and C. The total number of males working in the three companies is 86. The number of females working in A is 25% more than the number of males working in A. 26 males work in B, which is 14 less than the number of males working in A. The number of females working in A is equal to the number of females working in C. A total of 46 employees work in B.

    Q41.Find the total number of employees working in the three companies.

    • A201
    • B203
    • C206
    • D207
    • E100

    Answer: (C) 206

    Males: A = 26 + 14 = 40, B = 26, C = 86 - 40 - 26 = 20. Females: A = 1.25 x 40 = 50, B = 46 - 26 = 20, C = 50. Totals: A 90, B 46, C 70. 86 males + 120 females = 206.

  2. Q42.The number of males working in A is what percentage more than the number of males working in C?

    • A120%
    • B150%
    • C50%
    • D200%
    • E100%

    Answer: (E) 100%

    Males: A = 26 + 14 = 40, B = 26, C = 86 - 40 - 26 = 20. Females: A = 1.25 x 40 = 50, B = 46 - 26 = 20, C = 50. Totals: A 90, B 46, C 70. (40 - 20)/20 x 100 = 100%.

  3. Q43.Every employee of C is either a manager or an associate, and managers and associates are in the ratio 2 : 5. If 35 associates are female, find the number of male managers in C.

    • A4
    • B2
    • C9
    • D6
    • E5

    Answer: (E) 5

    Males: A = 26 + 14 = 40, B = 26, C = 86 - 40 - 26 = 20. Females: A = 1.25 x 40 = 50, B = 46 - 26 = 20, C = 50. Totals: A 90, B 46, C 70. C has 70 employees: managers = 20, associates = 50. Male associates = 50 - 35 = 15. C has 20 males, so male managers = 20 - 15 = 5.

  4. Q44.Find the ratio of the number of females working in B and C together to the number of males working in B.

    • A16:11
    • B13:35
    • C35:13
    • D7:13
    • E16:17

    Answer: (C) 35:13

    Males: A = 26 + 14 = 40, B = 26, C = 86 - 40 - 26 = 20. Females: A = 1.25 x 40 = 50, B = 46 - 26 = 20, C = 50. Totals: A 90, B 46, C 70. (20 + 50) : 26 = 70 : 26 = 35 : 13.

  5. Q45.Find the average number of employees working in A and B.

    • A70
    • B67
    • C66
    • D68
    • E69

    Answer: (D) 68

    Males: A = 26 + 14 = 40, B = 26, C = 86 - 40 - 26 = 20. Females: A = 1.25 x 40 = 50, B = 46 - 26 = 20, C = 50. Totals: A 90, B 46, C 70. (90 + 46)/2 = 68.

Quant - Mensuration (Q46–46)

  1. Q46.The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 5 : 3. Twice the perimeter of the rectangle is 96 cm. Find its area (in sq. cm).

    • A135
    • B196
    • C180
    • D154
    • E225

    Answer: (A) 135

    Perimeter = 48 = 2(5x + 3x) = 16x, so x = 3. Length 15 cm, breadth 9 cm. Area = 135 sq. cm.

Quant - Boats and Streams (Q47–47)

  1. Q47.The sum of the upstream and downstream speeds of a boat is 16 km/h. How long (in hours) will the boat take to cover 60 km in still water?

    • A8.5
    • B7.5
    • C5
    • D6
    • E6.5

    Answer: (B) 7.5

    Upstream + downstream = (b - s) + (b + s) = 2b = 16, so b = 8 km/h. Time = 60/8 = 7.5 hours.

Quant - Speed, Time and Distance (Q48–48)

  1. Q48.A bike covers 150 km in 5 hours, and the speed of a car is 4/5 of the speed of the bike. Find the speed of the car (in km/h).

    • A26
    • B20
    • C24
    • D25
    • E22

    Answer: (C) 24

    Bike speed = 150/5 = 30 km/h. Car = 4/5 x 30 = 24 km/h.

Quant - Simple Interest (Q49–49)

  1. Q49.Scheme X offers simple interest at 6% p.a. for 9 years on Rs. 3,000. Scheme Y offers simple interest at 12% p.a. for 6 years on Rs. P. The interest from Y is Rs. 1,260 more than the interest from X. Find P.

    • A3500
    • B2500
    • C3000
    • D5500
    • E4000

    Answer: (E) 4000

    Interest from X = 3000 x 6 x 9/100 = 1620. Interest from Y = 1620 + 1260 = 2880 = P x 12 x 6/100 = 0.72P, so P = Rs. 4,000.

Quant - Pipes and Cisterns (Q50–50)

  1. Q50.Pipes P, Q and R can each fill a tank alone in 8, 12 and 24 hours respectively. How long (in hours) will all three take to fill the tank together?

    • A8
    • B5
    • C3
    • D4
    • E6

    Answer: (D) 4

    Take the tank as 24 units. P fills 3, Q 2 and R 1 unit per hour: 6 units per hour together. Time = 24/6 = 4 hours.

Quant - Mixture and Alligation (Q51–51)

  1. Q51.150 litres of a milk-water mixture contain 30% water. 40 litres of the mixture are removed and y litres of water are added to the rest. The ratio of milk to water becomes 11 : 6. Find y.

    • A5
    • B9
    • C3
    • D4
    • E8

    Answer: (B) 9

    Milk 105 L, water 45 L. After removing 40 L (110 L left): milk 77, water 33. 77/(33 + y) = 11/6, so 33 + y = 42 and y = 9.

Quant - Partnership (Q52–52)

  1. Q52.Ravi and Sohan start a business with Rs. 9,000 and Rs. 6,000. Sohan leaves after Y months. At the end of the year, Sohan's share of a total profit of Rs. 4,500 is Rs. 1,500. Find Y.

    • A9
    • B10
    • C5
    • D6
    • E8

    Answer: (A) 9

    Ravi : Sohan = 9000 x 12 : 6000 x Y = 108000 : 6000Y. Sohan gets 1/3, so Ravi : Sohan = 2 : 1, i.e. 108000 = 12000Y and Y = 9.

Quant - Problems on Ages (Q53–53)

  1. Q53.The present ages of Aman and Rohan are in the ratio 3 : 5. Sohan is 8 years older than Aman and 4 years younger than Rohan. Find Rohan's age after 6 years.

    • A40
    • B36
    • C30
    • D32
    • E24

    Answer: (B) 36

    Rohan = Aman + 12. Aman/(Aman + 12) = 3/5, so 5 Aman = 3 Aman + 36 and Aman = 18. Rohan = 30 now and 36 after 6 years.

Quant - Profit and Loss (Q54–54)

  1. Q54.An article is sold at a profit of 20%. Had it been sold for Rs. 240 more, the profit would have been 30%. Find the cost price (in Rs.).

    • A2200
    • B1800
    • C1500
    • D1200
    • E2400

    Answer: (E) 2400

    The extra Rs. 240 is 30% - 20% = 10% of the cost price, so CP = Rs. 2,400.

Quant - Time and Work (Q55–55)

  1. Q55.A can complete a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. They start together, but B leaves after 4 days. In how many more days will A finish the remaining work?

    • A6
    • B5
    • C8
    • D9
    • E4

    Answer: (C) 8

    Take the work as 60 units: A does 4 and B 3 units a day. In 4 days they do 28 units, leaving 32. A needs 32/4 = 8 more days.

Quant - Simplification (Q56–65)

  1. Q56.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? 14² + 185 ÷ 37 = ? - 13

    • A150
    • B315
    • C220
    • D214
    • E107

    Answer: (D) 214

    196 + 5 = ? - 13, so ? = 201 + 13 = 214.

  2. Q57.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? √256 + 340 ÷ 34 + 39 = 16 + ? + 13

    • A36
    • B33
    • C14
    • D51
    • E93

    Answer: (A) 36

    16 + 10 + 39 = 65 = 29 + ?, so ? = 36.

  3. Q58.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? 5 × 14 - 246 + ? = 58

    • A221
    • B225
    • C233
    • D235
    • E234

    Answer: (E) 234

    70 - 246 + ? = 58, so ? = 58 + 246 - 70 = 234.

  4. Q59.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? 3333 ÷ 11 + 150 ÷ 10 = 10 + ?

    • A164
    • B620
    • C308
    • D210
    • E453

    Answer: (C) 308

    303 + 15 = 318 = 10 + ?, so ? = 308.

  5. Q60.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? 4500 ÷ 45 + 332 + 23 = ?

    • A455
    • B480
    • C325
    • D675
    • E220

    Answer: (A) 455

    100 + 332 + 23 = 455.

  6. Q61.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? 7³ + 4524 + 19% of 600 = ? - (2/5 of 450)

    • A5373
    • B5467
    • C7656
    • D5161
    • E5262

    Answer: (D) 5161

    343 + 4524 + 114 = 4981 = ? - 180, so ? = 5161.

  7. Q62.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? 45² + 3455 - 12% of 8900 = ?

    • A4513
    • B4412
    • C4234
    • D4056
    • E4055

    Answer: (B) 4412

    2025 + 3455 - 1068 = 4412.

  8. Q63.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? (4560 ÷ 15) ÷ (50 ÷ 2450) = ? - 45% of 500

    • A15121
    • B13345
    • C12323
    • D19093
    • E18118

    Answer: (A) 15121

    4560/15 = 304, and dividing by 50/2450 = 1/49 means multiplying by 49: 304 x 49 = 14896. 45% of 500 = 225. ? = 14896 + 225 = 15121.

  9. Q64.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? 5456 + 4563 - 1344 - 4244 = ?

    • A4345
    • B4056
    • C5423
    • D3434
    • E4431

    Answer: (E) 4431

    10019 - 1344 = 8675; 8675 - 4244 = 4431.

  10. Q65.Directions: What value should come in place of the question mark (?)? ∛6859 × 4 + 25% of 240 = ?

    • A256
    • B184
    • C136
    • D58
    • E124

    Answer: (C) 136

    ∛6859 = 19 (19³ = 6859). 19 x 4 = 76; 25% of 240 = 60. ? = 136.

Reasoning - Floor Puzzle (Q66–70)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on different floors of an eight-floor building. The floors are numbered 1 to 8 from bottom to top, and one person lives on each floor. D lives on an even-numbered floor above the 5th floor. Three persons live between D and B. The number of floors above B is the same as the number of floors below E. Two persons live between E and G. C lives immediately above A. More than three persons live between A and H.

    Q66.How many persons live above A?

    • ANone
    • BOne
    • CThree
    • DTwo
    • EMore than two

    Answer: (D) Two

    From top to bottom: 8 D, 7 C, 6 A, 5 E, 4 B, 3 F, 2 G, 1 H. (D on floor 6 would put B on floor 2 and E on floor 7, leaving no place for C directly above A with more than three persons between A and H.) C and D live above A.

  2. Q67.Who lives four floors below E?

    • AC
    • BH
    • CD
    • DB
    • EA

    Answer: (B) H

    From top to bottom: 8 D, 7 C, 6 A, 5 E, 4 B, 3 F, 2 G, 1 H. (D on floor 6 would put B on floor 2 and E on floor 7, leaving no place for C directly above A with more than three persons between A and H.) E is on floor 5, so four floors below is floor 1: H.

  3. Q68.Four of the following five pairs of persons are alike in a certain way based on their floors. Which pair does not belong to the group?

    • AD - A
    • BC - E
    • CC - H
    • DB - G
    • EF - H

    Answer: (C) C - H

    From top to bottom: 8 D, 7 C, 6 A, 5 E, 4 B, 3 F, 2 G, 1 H. (D on floor 6 would put B on floor 2 and E on floor 7, leaving no place for C directly above A with more than three persons between A and H.) In D-A (8, 6), C-E (7, 5), B-G (4, 2) and F-H (3, 1) the second person lives two floors below the first. C (7) and H (1) are six floors apart.

  4. Q69.Which of the following statements is/are true? I. D lives four floors above F. II. A lives on floor 6. III. B lives above H.

    • AOnly II
    • BOnly I and II
    • COnly I
    • DOnly II and III
    • EOnly III

    Answer: (D) Only II and III

    From top to bottom: 8 D, 7 C, 6 A, 5 E, 4 B, 3 F, 2 G, 1 H. (D on floor 6 would put B on floor 2 and E on floor 7, leaving no place for C directly above A with more than three persons between A and H.) I is false (D is on 8, F on 3: five floors apart). II is true. III is true (B on 4, H on 1).

  5. Q70.On which floor does E live?

    • AFloor 5
    • BFloor 7
    • CFloor 6
    • DFloor 4
    • EFloor 2

    Answer: (A) Floor 5

    From top to bottom: 8 D, 7 C, 6 A, 5 E, 4 B, 3 F, 2 G, 1 H. (D on floor 6 would put B on floor 2 and E on floor 7, leaving no place for C directly above A with more than three persons between A and H.) E lives on floor 5.

Reasoning - Syllogism (Q71–73)

  1. Q71.Directions: Each question has three statements followed by two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they seem at variance with known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) follow. Statements: All books are pens. All pens are pencils. No pencil is paper. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are books. II. No pen is paper.

    • AOnly I follows
    • BOnly II follows
    • CEither I or II follows
    • DNeither I nor II follows
    • EBoth I and II follow

    Answer: (E) Both I and II follow

    All books are pens and all pens are pencils, so all books are pencils; hence some pencils are books (I follows). All pens are pencils and no pencil is paper, so no pen is paper (II follows). Both follow.

  2. Q72.Directions: Each question has three statements followed by two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they seem at variance with known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) follow. Statements: Only a few trees are birds. No bird is green. Only a few greens are plants. Conclusions: I. Some plants are not trees. II. Some trees are not green.

    • AOnly I follows
    • BOnly II follows
    • CEither I or II follows
    • DNeither I nor II follows
    • EBoth I and II follow

    Answer: (B) Only II follows

    Some trees are birds, and no bird is green, so those trees are not green: II follows. Nothing links plants with trees, so all plants could be trees; I does not follow. Only II follows.

  3. Q73.Directions: Each question has three statements followed by two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they seem at variance with known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) follow. Statements: Only a few fish are water. No water is aqua. Some fish are ponds. Conclusions: I. Some ponds are aqua. II. No pond is aqua.

    • AOnly I follows
    • BOnly II follows
    • CEither I or II follows
    • DNeither I nor II follows
    • EBoth I and II follow

    Answer: (C) Either I or II follows

    Ponds are linked only to fish, and aqua only to water, so neither conclusion is definite. But I and II are exact opposites about the same two terms (some / no), so one of them must be true: Either I or II follows.

Reasoning - Letter Pairs (Q74–74)

  1. Q74.How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'COUNTER' each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (in both forward and backward directions)?

    • ATwo
    • BThree
    • CFour
    • DMore than four
    • EOne

    Answer: (E) One

    Only T-R works: in COUNTER one letter (E) lies between T and R, and in the alphabet one letter (S) lies between R and T. No other pair matches.

Reasoning - Digit Series (Q75–79)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Study the digit series and answer the questions. 7 2 5 8 4 1 9 6 3 7 6 2 9 4 5 1 8 1 7 5 2 6 9 4

    Q75.How many 7s are immediately followed by an even digit?

    • A4
    • BNone of these
    • C1
    • D2
    • E3

    Answer: (D) 2

    The series has 24 digits. The 7s are followed by 2 (7 2), 6 (7 6) and 5 (7 5). Two of them are followed by an even digit.

  2. Q76.If the second half of the series (the last 12 digits) is written in reverse order, which digit will be 15th from the left?

    • A9
    • B6
    • C2
    • D1
    • E5

    Answer: (B) 6

    The series has 24 digits. Last 12 digits: 9 4 5 1 8 1 7 5 2 6 9 4. Reversed: 4 9 6 2 5 7 1 8 1 5 4 9. The 15th digit from the left is the 3rd of this reversed half: 6.

  3. Q77.Which digit is 8th to the right of the 15th digit from the right end?

    • A1
    • B8
    • C9
    • D7
    • ENone of these

    Answer: (A) 1

    The series has 24 digits. 15th from the right = 10th from the left (7). 8th to its right is the 18th digit from the left: 1.

  4. Q78.If all the perfect-square digits (1, 4 and 9) are removed from the series, which digit will be 7th from the right in the remaining series?

    • A8
    • B3
    • C2
    • D5
    • E6

    Answer: (C) 2

    The series has 24 digits. Remaining digits: 7 2 5 8 6 3 7 6 2 5 8 7 5 2 6. 7th from the right: 2.

  5. Q79.How many odd digits are immediately followed by an even digit and immediately preceded by an odd digit?

    • ANone
    • BOne
    • CTwo
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (E) Four

    The series has 24 digits. Looking for odd-odd-even groups with the odd digit in the middle: 1 9 6, 3 7 6, 5 1 8 and 7 5 2. So there are four such digits (9, 7, 1 and 5).

Reasoning - Square Seating Arrangement (Q80–84)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a square table. Four sit at the corners and face the centre; four sit at the middle of the sides and face away from the centre. A faces the centre. G sits third to the right of E. Three persons sit between G and C. A sits immediately to the right of C. H sits second to the right of D. B sits opposite F. A sits next to B.

    Q80.Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on their seats. Which pair is the odd one out?

    • AC - B
    • BA - D
    • CB - G
    • DG - F
    • EH - A

    Answer: (B) A - D

    Going clockwise from A: A (corner), B (middle), H (corner), G (middle), D (corner), F (middle), E (corner), C (middle). Corner persons face the centre; middle persons face outward. In B-G, G-F, H-A and C-B, the second person sits second to the right of the first. D sits opposite A.

  2. Q81.Who sits immediately to the left of F?

    • AC
    • BG
    • CE
    • DD
    • EA

    Answer: (D) D

    Going clockwise from A: A (corner), B (middle), H (corner), G (middle), D (corner), F (middle), E (corner), C (middle). Corner persons face the centre; middle persons face outward. F faces outward, so F's left is the anticlockwise side, where D sits.

  3. Q82.How many persons sit between G and A when counted from the left of A?

    • AOne
    • BMore than three
    • CThree
    • DTwo
    • ENone

    Answer: (D) Two

    Going clockwise from A: A (corner), B (middle), H (corner), G (middle), D (corner), F (middle), E (corner), C (middle). Corner persons face the centre; middle persons face outward. A faces the centre, so A's left is the clockwise side: B, H, then G. Two persons (B and H) sit between.

  4. Q83.What is the position of H with respect to F?

    • ASecond to the right
    • BImmediate left
    • CThird to the left
    • DThird to the right
    • EImmediate right

    Answer: (C) Third to the left

    Going clockwise from A: A (corner), B (middle), H (corner), G (middle), D (corner), F (middle), E (corner), C (middle). Corner persons face the centre; middle persons face outward. F faces outward, so counting to F's left (anticlockwise): D (1st), G (2nd), H (3rd). H is third to the left of F.

  5. Q84.If all the persons are seated in alphabetical order going anticlockwise from A, with A in the same seat, how many persons other than A remain in their original seats?

    • AOne
    • BNone
    • CFour
    • DThree
    • ETwo

    Answer: (B) None

    Going clockwise from A: A (corner), B (middle), H (corner), G (middle), D (corner), F (middle), E (corner), C (middle). Corner persons face the centre; middle persons face outward. Anticlockwise from A the present order is C, E, F, D, G, H, B. The new order would be B, C, D, E, F, G, H. No seat matches, so none remains unchanged.

Reasoning - Odd One Out (Q85–85)

  1. Q85.Find the odd one out.

    • AEFC
    • BSTQ
    • CFGD
    • DWXU
    • EKLJ

    Answer: (E) KLJ

    In STQ, FGD, WXU and EFC, the second letter is one step after the first and the third letter is two steps before the first (S+1 = T, S-2 = Q). In KLJ the third letter is only one step before K.

Reasoning - Direction Sense (Q86–88)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Point A is 7 m west of point B. Point C is 24 m north of point B. Point D is 10 m west of point C. Point E is 9 m south of point D. Point F is 12 m north of point A. Point G is 4 m east of point F. Point K is 7 m east of point B, and point H is 15 m north of point K.

    Q86.In which direction is point H with respect to point E?

    • AEast
    • BSouth-west
    • CSouth-east
    • DWest
    • ENorth-east

    Answer: (A) East

    Take B as (0, 0) with east and north positive: A (-7, 0), C (0, 24), D (-10, 24), E (-10, 15), F (-7, 12), G (-3, 12), K (7, 0), H (7, 15). E (-10, 15) and H (7, 15) are on the same east-west line, with H 17 m to the east.

  2. Q87.Four of the following five pairs of points are alike in a certain way. Which pair does not belong to the group?

    • AA - H
    • BF - E
    • CB - D
    • DK - C
    • EB - G

    Answer: (A) A - H

    Take B as (0, 0) with east and north positive: A (-7, 0), C (0, 24), D (-10, 24), E (-10, 15), F (-7, 12), G (-3, 12), K (7, 0), H (7, 15). E is north-west of F, D north-west of B, C north-west of K and G north-west of B. H is north-east of A.

  3. Q88.What is the shortest distance between point G and point H?

    • A√89 m
    • B11 m
    • C√109 m
    • D13 m
    • E9 m

    Answer: (C) √109 m

    Take B as (0, 0) with east and north positive: A (-7, 0), C (0, 24), D (-10, 24), E (-10, 15), F (-7, 12), G (-3, 12), K (7, 0), H (7, 15). G (-3, 12) to H (7, 15): 10 m east and 3 m north. Distance = √(10² + 3²) = √109 m (about 10.44 m).

Reasoning - Inequality (Q89–91)

  1. Q89.Directions: Read the statement and decide which conclusion(s) are definitely true. Statement: N > K ≥ P ≥ L = A > D < R Conclusions: I. R > L II. D < K

    • AOnly conclusion I is true
    • BOnly conclusion II is true
    • CEither conclusion I or II is true
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II is true
    • EBoth conclusions I and II are true

    Answer: (B) Only conclusion II is true

    II: K ≥ P ≥ L = A > D gives K > D, so D < K is true. I: L > D < R gives no relation between L and R, so I is not definite. Only II.

  2. Q90.Directions: Read the statement and decide which conclusion(s) are definitely true. Statement: T < U < E ≥ C < H > L Conclusions: I. U > C II. L ≤ E

    • AOnly conclusion I is true
    • BOnly conclusion II is true
    • CEither conclusion I or II is true
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II is true
    • EBoth conclusions I and II are true

    Answer: (D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

    I: U < E ≥ C gives no fixed relation between U and C. II: E ≥ C < H > L gives no relation between E and L. Neither is definitely true.

  3. Q91.Directions: Read the statement and decide which conclusion(s) are definitely true. Statement: G < H < E; A ≥ H > S ≥ B Conclusions: I. A > G II. B > E

    • AOnly conclusion I is true
    • BOnly conclusion II is true
    • CEither conclusion I or II is true
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II is true
    • EBoth conclusions I and II are true

    Answer: (A) Only conclusion I is true

    I: A ≥ H > G, so A > G is true. II: E > H > S ≥ B, so B < E; II is false. Only I.

Reasoning - Word Formation (Q92–92)

  1. Q92.If a meaningful four-letter English word can be formed from the 3rd, 6th, 10th and 11th letters from the left of 'BLOCKBUSTER', what is the second letter from the right of that word? If more than one such word can be formed, answer 'Y'; if none can be formed, answer 'X'.

    • AB
    • BY
    • CR
    • DX
    • EE

    Answer: (B) Y

    The letters are O (3rd), B (6th), E (10th) and R (11th). Both BORE and ROBE can be formed, so the answer is Y.

Reasoning - Linear Seating Arrangement (Q93–95)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Some persons sit in a row facing north. Three persons sit between A and B. G sits fifth to the left of B. G is third from the left end. C sits third to the right of G. H sits sixth to the right of C. The number of persons to the left of A is the same as the number to the right of H. Two persons sit between H and D. E sits immediately to the right of D. F sits fourth to the right of E.

    Q93.How many persons sit in the row?

    • A18
    • B21
    • C17
    • D12
    • E15

    Answer: (E) 15

    G is 3rd from the left, so B is 8th, C 6th and H 12th. A is 4 places from B: 4th or 12th; 12th is H, so A is 4th, with 3 persons to its left. So 3 persons sit to the right of H, and the row has 15 persons. D is 9th (15th would leave no room for E), E 10th and F 14th. Total = 15.

  2. Q94.Who sits fourth to the left of E?

    • AG
    • BNone of these
    • CB
    • DC
    • EA

    Answer: (D) C

    G is 3rd from the left, so B is 8th, C 6th and H 12th. A is 4 places from B: 4th or 12th; 12th is H, so A is 4th, with 3 persons to its left. So 3 persons sit to the right of H, and the row has 15 persons. D is 9th (15th would leave no room for E), E 10th and F 14th. E is 10th, so fourth to its left is 6th: C.

  3. Q95.Who among the following sits next to G?

    • AA
    • BE
    • CD
    • DF
    • EH

    Answer: (A) A

    G is 3rd from the left, so B is 8th, C 6th and H 12th. A is 4 places from B: 4th or 12th; 12th is H, so A is 4th, with 3 persons to its left. So 3 persons sit to the right of H, and the row has 15 persons. D is 9th (15th would leave no room for E), E 10th and F 14th. G is 3rd and A is 4th. (The 2nd person is not named.)

Reasoning - Box Stacking Puzzle (Q96–100)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI Clerk (Junior Associates) Prelims 2025 (21 September 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are kept one above another in a stack. Three boxes are kept between box D and box H. Two boxes are kept between box D and box B, and B is above D. Box C is kept five places below box B. The number of boxes below box C is the same as the number of boxes above box A. Box G is kept immediately above box E.

    Q96.How many boxes are kept between box F and box B?

    • AFour
    • BMore than four
    • COne
    • DTwo
    • EThree

    Answer: (E) Three

    From top to bottom: A, H, B, G, E, D, F, C. (C is five below B, and the counts below C and above A force C to the bottom and A to the top.) Between B and F are G, E and D: three boxes.

  2. Q97.Which box is kept immediately below box C?

    • AG
    • BD
    • CH
    • DNone
    • EF

    Answer: (D) None

    From top to bottom: A, H, B, G, E, D, F, C. (C is five below B, and the counts below C and above A force C to the bottom and A to the top.) C is the bottom box, so no box is below it.

  3. Q98.Four of the following five pairs of boxes are alike in a certain way. Which pair does not belong to the group?

    • AA - H
    • BH - F
    • CB - G
    • DE - D
    • EF - C

    Answer: (B) H - F

    From top to bottom: A, H, B, G, E, D, F, C. (C is five below B, and the counts below C and above A force C to the bottom and A to the top.) In A-H, B-G, E-D and F-C, the second box is immediately below the first. F is five places below H.

  4. Q99.Which of the following statements is/are true about box F? I. Box F is kept above box A. II. Exactly one box is kept below box F. III. Box F is kept two places below box E.

    • AOnly I
    • BOnly II
    • COnly II and III
    • DOnly I and III
    • EOnly I and II

    Answer: (C) Only II and III

    From top to bottom: A, H, B, G, E, D, F, C. (C is five below B, and the counts below C and above A force C to the bottom and A to the top.) I is false (A is on top). II is true (only C is below F). III is true (E is 4th from the bottom and F 2nd).

  5. Q100.If the boxes are rearranged in alphabetical order from bottom to top, how many boxes will remain in their present positions?

    • AThree
    • BOne
    • CNone
    • DTwo
    • EFour

    Answer: (C) None

    From top to bottom: A, H, B, G, E, D, F, C. (C is five below B, and the counts below C and above A force C to the bottom and A to the top.) Bottom to top now: C, F, D, E, G, B, H, A. Alphabetical: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H. No position matches.

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