SSC CHSL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 18 November Shift 1 with Answers
- Exam date
- 18 November 2025
- Shift
- Shift 110:00 AM
SSC uploaded the final answer keys with candidates' response sheets for CHSL 2025 Tier-I on 19.03.2026. Each paper here is one shift's response sheet, keyed to SSC's marked answers.
Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.
English Language (Q1–25)
- Official paper: SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-I, held on 18 November 2025, Shift 1 (10:00 AM). Questions and the answer key are as printed on SSC’s candidate response sheet. Explanations are written by BookOfExams. Marking: +2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one.
Q1.Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. The group of students / along with the professor / were discussing the new findings / in the research lab.
- AThe group of students
- Balong with the professor
- Cwere discussing the new findings
- Din the research lab.
Answer: (C) were discussing the new findings
‘Along with the professor’ does not change the subject. The subject is ‘the group’ (singular), so it should be ‘was discussing’, not ‘were discussing’. The error is in part C.
Q2.Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. She spoke / so fastly that / I could barely understand / what she was saying.
- AShe spoke
- Bso fastly that
- CI could barely understand
- Dwhat she was saying.
Answer: (B) so fastly that
‘Fast’ is itself an adverb; ‘fastly’ is not a word. It should be ‘so fast that’. The error is in part B.
Q3.Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition: The researchers accounted _____ all variables before finalizing the data model.
- Afor
- Bto
- Cwith
- Don
Answer: (A) for
To ‘account for’ something means to take it into consideration or explain it, so ‘accounted for all variables’ is correct.
Q4.Fill in the blank with the most appropriate verb: She _____ her position on the matter only after repeated questioning by the press.
- Areiterates
- Bclarified
- Cdeflects
- Dassumes
Answer: (B) clarified
‘Only after repeated questioning’ points to a completed past action, so the past tense ‘clarified’ fits. The other options are in the present tense.
Q5.Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: Pellucid
- AVague
- BClear
- CObscure
- DAmbiguous
Answer: (B) Clear
Pellucid means transparently clear (in water or in style). Vague, obscure and ambiguous are opposites.
Q6.Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: Querulous
- AContented
- BComplaining
- CCheerful
- DPleasant
Answer: (B) Complaining
Querulous means complaining in a petulant or whining way. Contented, cheerful and pleasant are opposites.
Q7.Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Out and about
- AAt home resting
- BDoing errands
- CActive and socializing
- DTraveling to distant places
Answer: (C) Active and socializing
‘Out and about’ means active and going around socially, often after an illness. SSC’s key is ‘Active and socializing’.
Q8.Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Retired
- AActive
- BIdle
- CResting
- DInactive
Answer: (A) Active
‘Retired’ here means no longer working or withdrawn from activity. Its antonym is ‘active’; idle, resting and inactive are close in meaning.
Q9.Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Veracity
- AFalsehood
- BTruth
- CAccuracy
- DAuthenticity
Answer: (A) Falsehood
Veracity means truthfulness. Its antonym is ‘falsehood’. Truth, accuracy and authenticity are synonyms.
Q10.Choose the correct one-word substitute for: A style of writing characterized by exaggerated sentimentality
- ASentimentalism
- BRomanticism
- CMelodrama
- DExpressionism
Answer: (C) Melodrama
Melodrama is a style of writing or drama with exaggerated emotion and sentimentality. Sentimentalism is the attitude itself; romanticism and expressionism are broader movements.
Q11.Which sentence contains a misspelled word?
- AMany believed the new millennium would bring great change, but some felt embarrassed when their predictions failed.
- BHe didn’t want to embarrass himself at the start of the new millenium.
- CThe celebration of the millennium was truly unforgettable, though it did embarrass a few politicians.
- DShe didn’t expect the event to embarrass her during the millennium gala.
Answer: (B) He didn’t want to embarrass himself at the start of the new millenium.
The correct spelling is ‘millennium’ (double l, double n). Option B spells it ‘millenium’.
Q12.Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect voice. The student said, “I have been reading this book for a month, but I still do not understand the last chapter, which is the most crucial part.”
- AThe student said that he had been reading that book for a month, but he still did not understand the last chapter, which was the most crucial part.
- BThe student said that he has been reading this book for a month, but he still does not understand the last chapter, which is the most crucial part.
- CThe student said that he had been reading this book for a month, but he still did not understand the last chapter, which was the most crucial part.
- DThe student said that he had been reading that book for a month, but he still does not understand the last chapter, which is the most crucial part.
Answer: (A) The student said that he had been reading that book for a month, but he still did not understand the last chapter, which was the most crucial part.
Reported speech: ‘I’ → ‘he’, ‘this’ → ‘that’, have been reading → had been reading, do not → did not, is → was. Only option A makes every change.
Q13.Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect voice. The doctor said, “If you exercise regularly, you will feel better.”
- AThe doctor said that if you exercised regularly, you would feel better.
- BThe doctor said that if he/she exercised regularly, he/she would feel better.
- CThe doctor said that if one exercises regularly, one will feel better.
- DThe doctor said that if one exercised regularly, one would feel better.
Answer: (D) The doctor said that if one exercised regularly, one would feel better.
The doctor’s ‘you’ is general advice to anyone, and the tenses move back (exercise → exercised, will → would). SSC’s key uses the general pronoun: ‘if one exercised regularly, one would feel better’.
Q14.Which sentence contains a misspelled word?
- AWe went to a new restuarant downtown.
- BThat restaurant serves delicious food.
- CIs there a restaurant nearby that’s open late?
- DThey own the oldest restaurant in town.
Answer: (A) We went to a new restuarant downtown.
The correct spelling is ‘restaurant’. Option A spells it ‘restuarant’.
Q15.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: All the ‘jury members was divided’ in their opinions. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)
- AAll the jury member were divided
- BAll the jury members were divided
- CAll the jury were divided between their opinions
- DAll juries have divided in their opinions
Answer: (B) All the jury members were divided
‘Members’ is plural, so the verb must be ‘were’: All the jury members were divided in their opinions.
Q16.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: One should ‘do ones' duty’. (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)
- AOne should do one’s duty
- BOne should do ones duties
- COne should do once duties
- DOne should do their duty
Answer: (A) One should do one’s duty
The possessive of the pronoun ‘one’ is ‘one’s’ (apostrophe before s): One should do one’s duty.
Q17.Choose the correct passive voice transformation of the sentence: You must finish your homework.
- AYour homework must be finished by you.
- BYour homework must being finished by you.
- CYour homework must have been finished by you.
- DYour homework is must be finished by you.
Answer: (A) Your homework must be finished by you.
Modal + active verb (must finish) becomes modal + be + past participle in the passive: Your homework must be finished by you.
Q18.Choose the correct passive voice transformation of the sentence: The new intern had forgotten to lock the laboratory door before leaving.
- AThe laboratory door was forgotten to be locked by the new intern before leaving.
- BThe laboratory door had been forgotten to be locked by the new intern before leaving.
- CThe laboratory door has been forgotten to be locked by the new intern before leaving.
- DThe laboratory door had forgotten to lock by the new intern before leaving.
Answer: (B) The laboratory door had been forgotten to be locked by the new intern before leaving.
Past perfect active (had forgotten) becomes ‘had been + past participle’ in the passive. SSC’s key is ‘The laboratory door had been forgotten to be locked by the new intern before leaving.’ The sentence is awkward, but it is the only option that keeps the past perfect correctly.
Q19.Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct voice. The student told his friend that he had to go home that day because he had been feeling unwell since the day before, and his parents were waiting for him.
- A“I have to go home today because I was feeling unwell since yesterday, and my parents are waiting for me,” the student said to his friend.
- B“I had to go home that day because I had been feeling unwell since the day before, and my parents were waiting for me,” the student said to his friend.
- C“I must go home today because I was feeling unwell since yesterday, and my parents were waiting for me,” the student said to his friend.
- D“I have to go home today because I had been feeling unwell since yesterday, and my parents were waiting for me,” the student said to his friend.
Answer: (A) “I have to go home today because I was feeling unwell since yesterday, and my parents are waiting for me,” the student said to his friend.
Back to direct speech: ‘that day’ → ‘today’, ‘the day before’ → ‘yesterday’, ‘had to’ → ‘have to’, ‘were waiting’ → ‘are waiting’. SSC’s key is option A. Note: ‘I have been feeling unwell since yesterday’ would be more exact than ‘I was feeling’, but it is not offered and A is the only option with all the other changes right.
- Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it: India’s tryst with chess is deeply interwoven with its cultural heritage, for the game itself originally known as “chaturanga” emerged on the subcontinent over a millennium ago. Initially conceived as a strategic simulation of warfare, “chaturanga” evolved into shatranj under Persian influence before migrating westward, ultimately becoming modern chess. In the contemporary era, India’s prominence on the global chess stage began with the meteoric ascent of Viswanathan Anand in the late 20th century. Anand’s fluid playing style, amalgamating tactical precision with positional depth, earned him the World Chess Championship title multiple times and inspired a generation of players. His success catalysed institutional investment in chess, leading to an upsurge in tournaments, academies, and grassroots initiatives across the country. The 21st century has witnessed the emergence of prodigies such as Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa, D. Gukesh, and Nihal Sarin, whose exploits in international arenas have positioned India as a formidable force in team events like the Chess Olympiad. Digital platforms have further accelerated talent development, enabling young aspirants to spar with grandmasters worldwide, thus refining their strategic acumen from an early age. Today, India stands not merely as the cradle of chess’s origins but as an influential power shaping its future. This continuity from ancient invention to modern innovation underscores the nation’s enduring legacy in the chess world.
Q20.The phrase “enabling young aspirants to spar with grandmasters worldwide” functions as:
- ANoun clause
- BAdverbial phrase
- CParticiple phrase
- DAbsolute phrase
Answer: (C) Participle phrase
‘Enabling young aspirants …’ begins with a present participle (-ing form) and describes the digital platforms, so it is a participle phrase.
Q21.Identify the voice in “Initially conceived as a strategic simulation of warfare”.
- AActive voice
- BPassive voice
- CMiddle voice
- DCausative voice
Answer: (B) Passive voice
‘Conceived’ is a past participle with a passive sense: chaturanga was conceived (by someone) as a simulation of war. So it is passive voice.
Q22.The word “meteoric” most nearly means:
- AGradual and steady
- BRapid and spectacular
- CTemporary and weak
- DHidden and secretive
Answer: (B) Rapid and spectacular
‘Meteoric’ (like a meteor) means rapid and spectacular, as in Anand’s meteoric ascent.
Q23.The word “acumen” means:
- ASharpness in understanding
- BPhysical strength
- CLuck
- DLongevity
Answer: (A) Sharpness in understanding
Acumen means sharpness in understanding and judging things quickly.
Q24.According to the passage, what factor in recent years has accelerated chess talent development in India?
- AIncrease in board game shops
- BDigital platforms allowing global practice
- CMandatory school chess programs
- DReduced emphasis on international events
Answer: (B) Digital platforms allowing global practice
The passage says digital platforms accelerated talent development by letting young players spar with grandmasters worldwide.
Q25.Which of the following pairs of homonyms can be used to fill in the blanks most suitably? The interior designer received a _____ from her client for choosing furniture that would perfectly _____ the walls and floors.
- Acounsel, council
- Bcomplement, compliment
- Ccompliment, complement
- Dcouncil, counsel
Answer: (C) compliment, complement
The client ‘complimented’ her (praised her) and the furniture would ‘complement’ (go well with) the walls. So: compliment, complement.
General Intelligence (Q26–50)
Q26.Two numbers differ by 12. If their product is increased by the square of their difference, the result is 1008. Find the larger number.
- A18
- B24
- C30
- D36
Answer: (D) 36
Let the larger number be L; the smaller is L − 12. L(L − 12) + 12² = 1008 → L² − 12L − 864 = 0 → (L − 36)(L + 24) = 0 → L = 36. Check: 36 × 24 + 144 = 864 + 144 = 1008. Answer: 36. Note: SSC’s official answer key printed 30 in error; 30 does not satisfy the condition (30 × 18 + 144 = 684), so we show the correct answer, 36.
Q27.The average score of 5 students in a test is 75. If the scores of four students are 70, 80, 65, and 90, what is the score of the fifth student?
- A60
- B70
- C75
- D80
Answer: (B) 70
Total of 5 scores = 5 × 75 = 375. Four scores add to 70 + 80 + 65 + 90 = 305. Fifth score = 375 − 305 = 70.
Q28.A, B, and C started a business by investing ₹2000, ₹3000, and ₹4000 respectively. If the total profit at the end of the year was ₹1800, what is B's share of the profit?
- A₹400
- B₹600
- C₹800
- D₹900
Answer: (B) ₹600
Ratio 2000 : 3000 : 4000 = 2 : 3 : 4. B’s share = 3/9 × 1800 = ₹600.
Q29.What is the average of the following numbers: 12, 18, 24, 30, 36?
- A24
- B25
- C26
- D27
Answer: (A) 24
Average = (12 + 18 + 24 + 30 + 36)/5 = 120/5 = 24.
Q30.If a car travels 180 km in 3 hours, what is its average speed in km/hr?
- A50 km/hr
- B60 km/hr
- C70 km/hr
- D80 km/hr
Answer: (B) 60 km/hr
Average speed = 180/3 = 60 km/hr.
Q31.If a number is increased by 10% and then decreased by 10%, what is the net change?
- A1% increase
- B1% decrease
- CNo change
- D0.5% decrease
Answer: (B) 1% decrease
1.1 × 0.9 = 0.99, so the number falls by 1%. (Rule: +x% then −x% gives a loss of x²/100 %.)
Q32.During Diwali, Meera arranges 50 lamps in a row. A golden lamp is 18th from left and 33rd from right. A silver lamp is 25th from left and 26th from right. How many lamps are there between the golden and silver lamps?
- A6
- B7
- CThis arrangement is impossible
- D5
Answer: (A) 6
Golden lamp: 18 + 33 − 1 = 50 and silver lamp: 25 + 26 − 1 = 50, so both positions fit a row of 50 lamps. Lamps between them = 25 − 18 − 1 = 6. Answer: 6. Note: SSC’s official answer key printed ‘This arrangement is impossible’ in error; the data are consistent, so we show the correct answer, 6.
Q33.A shop offers a 25% discount on the marked price of an item. If the selling price is ₹750, what is the marked price?
- A₹900
- B₹1000
- C₹1050
- D₹1200
Answer: (B) ₹1000
Selling price = 75% of marked price. Marked price = 750/0.75 = ₹1,000.
Q34.A person walks 9 km west, then 12 km north, and finally 9 km east. In which direction is he from his starting point?
- ANorth
- BSouth
- CEast
- DWest
Answer: (A) North
The 9 km west and 9 km east cancel out, leaving 12 km north of the start. Direction: North.
Q35.A person walks 9 km west, then 12 km north, and finally 9 km east. In which direction is he from his starting point? (This question appears twice in the official paper, as Q34 and Q35.)
- ANorth
- BSouth
- CEast
- DWest
Answer: (A) North
Same as Q34: west and east movements of 9 km cancel, so he is 12 km north of the starting point.
Q36.Few of the letters are given followed by a question mark (?) these letters are following a specific pattern you have to give the correct option which can replace question mark. Complete the sequence: T, Q, N, K, ?
- AG
- BH
- CI
- DJ
Answer: (B) H
Letters go back three each time: T(20), Q(17), N(14), K(11), so next is H(8).
Q37.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 34, 55, 89, 144, 233, ?
- A367
- B387
- C377
- D477
Answer: (C) 377
Each term is the sum of the previous two: 89 + 144 = 233, 144 + 233 = 377.
Q38.Identify the missing number in the following number sequence. 20, 15, 40, 30, 120, 90, ?, 360
- A270
- B350
- C380
- D480
Answer: (D) 480
Two alternating rules: 20 → 40 → 120 → ? (×2, ×3, ×4) and 15 → 30 → 90 → 360 (×2, ×3, ×4). So ? = 120 × 4 = 480.
Q39.Which one of the following number pairs is divisible by both 13 and 17?
- A(221, 443)
- B(663, 884)
- C(443, 663)
- D(664, 884)
Answer: (B) (663, 884)
A number divisible by both 13 and 17 must be divisible by 221. 663 = 221 × 3 and 884 = 221 × 4, so (663, 884) is the pair.
Q40.Complete the following series from the given options. ab__baabxb__a__xba__bxba
- Axaba
- Bxabx
- Cxaxa
- Daaba
Answer: (A) xaba
Each ‘__’ stands for one missing letter. With x, a, b, a the series reads abxba / abxba / abxba / abxba.
Q41.Which of the following options will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? Z1, X2, V3, T4, ?
- AR5
- BS5
- CP6
- DQ5
Answer: (A) R5
Letters go back two (Z, X, V, T, R) and numbers go up by one (1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Next: R5.
Q42.What should come next in the following series? A4, C16, F36, J64, ?
- AO100
- BN100
- CK100
- DL100
Answer: (A) O100
Letter positions A(1), C(3), F(6), J(10), O(15) grow by +2, +3, +4, +5, and numbers are squares of even numbers: 2², 4², 6², 8², 10². Next: O100.
Q43.If in a certain code, 'MANGO' is written as 'LKZYMLFENM', what is the code of 'GUITAR'?
- AFESTHGRSZYPQ
- BFETSHGQRYZPQ
- CFETSGHRTZYPQ
- DFETSHGSRZYQP
Answer: (D) FETSHGSRZYQP
Each letter is replaced by the two letters before it: M → LK, A → ZY, N → ML, G → FE, O → NM. So G → FE, U → TS, I → HG, T → SR, A → ZY, R → QP: FETSHGSRZYQP.
Q44.In the question given below, an assertion (A) is given, followed by a reason (R) which may or may not explain the assertion. From the given options, choose the right answer. A) Apart from studies, playtime is also essential for children. R) Engaging in play helps in physical development and improves co-ordination.
- ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
- BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
- CA is true, while R is false.
- DA is false, while R is true.
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
Play is essential for children (A is true), and the reason given, that play builds physical development and co-ordination, explains why. So both are true and R explains A.
Q45.Based on the statement(s) given below, choose the best possible conclusion(s) that follows: Statements: Only candidates with 7 or above years of experience in marketing can apply for the post; otherwise, their applications will be rejected. Conclusions: I. Only candidates with an MBA degree in marketing can apply. II. Applications of candidates with 6 years of experience in marketing will not be considered for the post.
- AOnly conclusion I follows
- BOnly conclusion II follows
- CBoth conclusion I and II follow
- DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (B) Only conclusion II follows
Only those with 7 or more years can apply, so someone with 6 years will be rejected: II follows. The statement says nothing about an MBA, so I does not follow.
Q46.Instructions: Carefully examine the Reference Statement. Then, identify the single option among the four alternatives (a, b, c, d) that is an EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement. Pay exceptionally close attention to every character, number, symbol, space, and punctuation mark. Reference: Mumbai (BOM), 26/11/2008, 09:30 PM.
- AMumbai (BOM), 26/11/2008, 09:30 PM.
- BMumbai (BOM), 26/11/2008, 09:30 P.M.
- CMumbai (BOM), 26/11/2008, 9:30 PM.
- DMumb_ai (BOM), 26/11/2008, 09:30 PM.
Answer: (A) Mumbai (BOM), 26/11/2008, 09:30 PM.
Only option A matches the reference exactly. B writes P.M., C drops the zero in 09:30 and D has an extra underscore.
Q47.Instructions: For the question below, carefully examine the Reference Statement. Then, identify the single option among the four alternatives (a, b, c, d) that is an EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement. Pay exceptionally close attention to every character, number, symbol, space, and punctuation mark. Reference: Athens, GR: 24th July, 1974.
- AAthens, GR: 24th July, 1974.
- BAthens, Gr.: 24th July, 1974.
- CAtens, GR: 24th July, 1974.
- DAthens, GR: 24th July, 1947.
Answer: (A) Athens, GR: 24th July, 1974.
Only option A matches exactly. B writes ‘Gr.’, C misspells Athens and D changes 1974 to 1947.
Q48.Instructions: For the question below, carefully examine the Reference Statement. Then, identify the single option among the four alternatives (a, b, c, d) that is an EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement. Pay exceptionally close attention to every character, number, symbol, space, and punctuation mark. Reference: Edinburgh: 24th June, 1314
- AEdinburgh: 24th June, 1314
- BEdinburg: 24th June, 1314
- CEdinburgh: 24th June, 1413
- DEdinburgh: 23rd June, 1314
Answer: (A) Edinburgh: 24th June, 1314
Only option A matches exactly. B drops the h in Edinburgh, C changes 1314 to 1413 and D changes the date to 23rd.
Q49.In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives. 3 | 2 | 5 4 | 4 | 2 5 | 6 | 6 59 | 47 | ?
- A53
- B55
- C57
- D59
Answer: (D) 59
In each column, the product of the three numbers minus 1 is written below: 3 × 4 × 5 − 1 = 59, 2 × 4 × 6 − 1 = 47, so 5 × 2 × 6 − 1 = 59.
Q50.In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives. 7 | 4 | 9 5 | 6 | 5 3 | 5 | 3 104 | 119 | ?
- A144
- B124
- C134
- D184
Answer: (C) 134
Column rule: product minus 1. 7 × 5 × 3 − 1 = 104, 4 × 6 × 5 − 1 = 119, so 9 × 5 × 3 − 1 = 134.
Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–75)
Q51.The intersection of Rational and Irrational numbers is:
- ARational
- BIrrational
- CReal
- DEmpty
Answer: (D) Empty
No number can be both rational and irrational, so their intersection is the empty set.
Q52.Which number is NOT real?
- A√7
- B√-7
- C1/√7
- D-√7
Answer: (B) √-7
The square root of a negative number (√−7) is not a real number; it is imaginary. The other three are real.
Q53.The number of rational numbers between any two rational numbers is:
- A0
- B1
- CFinite
- DInfinite
Answer: (D) Infinite
Between any two distinct rational numbers there are infinitely many rational numbers (e.g. keep taking averages).
Q54.In triangle PQR, two medians, PS and QT, intersect each other at X at right angles. If PS = 18 cm and QT = 7.5 cm, then find the length of PQ.
- A11 cm
- B17 cm
- C13 cm
- D10 cm
Answer: (C) 13 cm
The centroid X divides each median 2 : 1. PX = 2/3 × 18 = 12 and QX = 2/3 × 7.5 = 5. Since the medians meet at right angles, PQ = √(12² + 5²) = 13 cm.
Q55.If 8 men can do a piece of work in 14 days, the time taken by 12 men to do the same piece of work will be:
- A7.5 days
- B8 days
- C8.5 days
- D9.33 days
Answer: (D) 9.33 days
Men × days is constant: 8 × 14 = 112 man-days. 12 men need 112/12 = 9.33 days.
Q56.A does 60% of the work in 18 days. He then calls in B, and they together finish the remaining work in 4 days. How long would B alone take to do the whole work?
- A21 days
- B20 days
- C18 days
- D15 days
Answer: (D) 15 days
A does 60% in 18 days, so A’s rate is 1/30 of the work per day. A and B finish the remaining 40% in 4 days: combined rate = 0.4/4 = 1/10. B’s rate = 1/10 − 1/30 = 1/15, so B alone takes 15 days.
Q57.The longest chord of a circle is:
- ARadius
- BDiameter
- CA chord perpendicular to the radius
- DTangent
Answer: (B) Diameter
The diameter is the longest chord of a circle; it passes through the centre.
Q58.In a circle, chord AB subtends 60° at the center. The angle between the tangents at A and B is:
- A60°
- B90°
- C120°
- D150°
Answer: (C) 120°
The tangents at A and B together with the radii OA and OB form a quadrilateral with two right angles. Angle between tangents = 180° − 60° = 120°.
Q59.The radius of the circle passing through the vertices of a triangle with sides 6 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm is:
- A5 cm
- B6 cm
- C7 cm
- D8 cm
Answer: (A) 5 cm
6² + 8² = 10², so the triangle is right-angled. The circumradius of a right triangle is half the hypotenuse: 10/2 = 5 cm.
Q60.The circumference of a circle is 132 cm. The radius of the given circle is equal to the radius of a cone having height 12 cm. Find the volume of the cone. (Take π = 22/7)
- A5044 cm³
- B5124 cm³
- C5784 cm³
- D5544 cm³
Answer: (D) 5544 cm³
Radius = 132/(2 × 22/7) = 21 cm. Cone volume = ⅓ × 22/7 × 21² × 12 = 5544 cm³.
Q61.A circle is inscribed in ΔABC, touching AB, BC and AC at the points P, Q and R, respectively. If AB - BC = 4 cm, AB - AC = 2 cm and the perimeter of ΔABC = 36 cm, then PB + AR (in cm) is:
- A12
- B10
- C14
- D15
Answer: (C) 14
AB + BC + CA = 36, BC = AB − 4, AC = AB − 2, so 3AB − 6 = 36 and AB = 14, BC = 10, AC = 12. With s = 18, tangent lengths are PB = s − AC = 6 and AR = s − BC = 8. PB + AR = 14.
Q62.A man lends out a sum of money by putting 40% of it at 7.5% p.a. simple interest and the remaining 60% at 11.25% p.a. simple interest. After 2½ years (2.5 years) his total interest income is ₹6,825. What was the original sum (principal) he lent?
- ARs. 25000
- BRs. 28000
- CRs. 30000
- DRs. 27692.31
Answer: (B) Rs. 28000
Interest = P × 2.5 × (0.4 × 7.5% + 0.6 × 11.25%) = P × 2.5 × 9.75% = 0.24375P = 6,825, so P = ₹28,000.
Q63.Deepak spends 75% of his income, whereas Karan spends 80% of his income. Both of them save Rs. 7,500 each. The income of Sanjay is one-third of the sum of the income of Deepak and Karan. If Sanjay spends (7/9) th of his income, then find his savings.
- ARs. 5,500
- BRs. 5,900
- CRs. 5,000
- DRs. 5,700
Answer: (C) Rs. 5,000
Deepak saves 25%: income = 7,500/0.25 = 30,000. Karan saves 20%: income = 7,500/0.20 = 37,500. Sanjay = (30,000 + 37,500)/3 = 22,500, and he saves 2/9 of it = ₹5,000.
Q64.In a partnership, the capital ratio between A and B is 5:7. If A invested Rs 50,000, how much did B invest?
- ARs 60,000
- BRs 70,000
- CRs 75,000
- DRs 80,000
Answer: (B) Rs 70,000
A : B = 5 : 7 and A = 50,000, so B = 50,000 × 7/5 = Rs 70,000.
Q65.Two students' scores are 80% and 90% of a test's total score. What is the ratio of the first student's score to the second student's score?
- A8:9
- B9:8
- C4:5
- D5:4
Answer: (A) 8:9
80% : 90% = 8 : 9.
Q66.The average age of 15 players in a hockey team is the same as it was 4 years ago because 5 players, whose current average age is 28 years, were replaced by 5 new players. What is the average age of the newcomers?
- A16 years
- B18 years
- C20 years
- D22 years
Answer: (A) 16 years
The team’s total age today equals its total 4 years ago, so the 15 × 4 = 60 years of ageing were cancelled by the swap. The five who left total 5 × 28 = 140 now, so the newcomers total 140 − 60 = 80, average 16 years.
Q67.The average of 15 numbers is 28. If each number is doubled and then 5 is added to each, what will be the new average?
- A58
- B62
- C61
- D64
Answer: (C) 61
Doubling doubles the average (56) and adding 5 to each adds 5 to the average: 61.
Q68.A flight covers 1,200 km in 2 hours. By what percent should its speed be decreased to cover the same distance in 3 hours?
- A25.50%
- B30.11%
- C33.33%
- D38.57%
Answer: (C) 33.33%
Speed falls from 1200/2 = 600 km/h to 1200/3 = 400 km/h. Decrease = 200/600 = 33.33%.
Q69.A shopkeeper offers a 20% discount on the marked price of an article. If the marked price of the article is ₹2,500 and the shopkeeper further gives a 10% discount on the already reduced price, what is the final selling price of the article?
- A₹1,850
- B₹1,800
- C₹1,600
- D₹1,700
Answer: (B) ₹1,800
2,500 × 0.8 = 2,000, then 2,000 × 0.9 = ₹1,800.
Q70.A shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of 10% and 20% on a laptop priced at ₹40,000. What is the final selling price after both discounts?
- A₹30,000
- B₹31,600
- C₹28,800
- D₹32,000
Answer: (C) ₹28,800
40,000 × 0.9 = 36,000, then 36,000 × 0.8 = ₹28,800.
Q71.A 70-litre container is filled with a solution of wine and water, with the ratio of wine to water being 5:2. If 14 litres of the solution is removed and replaced with 14 litres of pure water, what is the new ratio of wine to water?
- A2:1
- B5:3
- C3:2
- D4:3
Answer: (D) 4:3
Wine = 50 L, water = 20 L. Removing 14 L of the 5 : 2 mixture takes out 10 L wine and 4 L water: 40 L wine, 16 L water. Adding 14 L water gives 40 : 30 = 4 : 3.
Q72.Arrange in ascending order: √3, ∛5, ∜6.
- A√3, ∛5, ∜6
- B∜6, ∛5, √3
- C∛5, √3, ∜6
- D∛5, ∜6, √3
Answer: (B) ∜6, ∛5, √3
√3 ≈ 1.732, ∛5 ≈ 1.710, ∜6 ≈ 1.565. Ascending: ∜6, ∛5, √3. (Or raise all to the 12th power: 6³ = 216 < 5⁴ = 625 < 3⁶ = 729.)
Q73.Find the equation of the line with slope -2 passing through the point (3, 5).
- Ay = −4x − 9
- By = x − 11
- Cy = −2x + 11
- Dy = 4x + 19
Answer: (C) y = −2x + 11
Point-slope form: y − 5 = −2(x − 3) → y = −2x + 11.
Q74.Two similar triangles have areas of 16 m² and 25 m². If the perimeter of the smaller triangle is 20 meters, what is the perimeter of the larger triangle?
- A17 m
- B25 m
- C23 m
- D33 m
Answer: (B) 25 m
Perimeters of similar triangles are in the ratio of the square roots of their areas: √16 : √25 = 4 : 5. Larger perimeter = 20 × 5/4 = 25 m.
Q75.In triangle ABC, D and E are points on sides AB and AC such that DE∥BC. If AD=4 cm, DB=12 cm, AE=3 cm, and EC=9 cm, what is the ratio of the area of triangle ADE to the area of triangle ABC?
- A1:4
- B1:16
- C2:9
- D3:12
Answer: (B) 1:16
AD/AB = 4/16 = 1/4 (and AE/AC = 3/12 = 1/4). Since DE ∥ BC the triangles are similar, so the area ratio is (1/4)² = 1 : 16.
General Awareness (Q76–100)
Q76.In March 2025, Operation Brahma was launched to assist earthquake hit _____.
- ABangladesh
- BMyanmar
- CNepal
- DTurkey
Answer: (B) Myanmar
Operation Brahma was India’s humanitarian relief mission for Myanmar after the earthquake of 28 March 2025.
Q77.Srinivasa Ramanujan, the mathematical genius, was passed away on April 26, 1920, at about what age?
- A21
- B32
- C47
- D58
Answer: (B) 32
Srinivasa Ramanujan was born on 22 December 1887 and died on 26 April 1920, aged 32.
Q78.Who became the Chairman of ISRO in January 2025?
- AS. Somanath
- BK. Sivan
- CV. Narayanan
- DKoppillil Radhakrishnan
Answer: (C) V. Narayanan
V. Narayanan took charge as Chairman of ISRO (and Secretary, Department of Space) in January 2025, succeeding S. Somanath.
Q79.In November 2024, who has been appointed as Chief of BrahMos Aerospace?
- AJaiteerth Raghavendra Joshi
- BRakesh Sharma
- CJitender Pal Singh
- DM. Mohan
Answer: (A) Jaiteerth Raghavendra Joshi
DRDO scientist Dr Jaiteerth R. Joshi was appointed Director General of BrahMos and CEO & MD of BrahMos Aerospace in November 2024, taking charge on 1 December 2024.
Q80.In October 2024, who has been appointed as the Secretary of the Ministry of Coal?
- AVikram Dev Dutt
- BVijender Gupta
- CRekha Gupta
- DGopal Vittal
Answer: (A) Vikram Dev Dutt
Vikram Dev Dutt (IAS 1993, AGMUT), earlier DG of the DGCA, took charge as Secretary, Ministry of Coal on 21 October 2024.
Q81.In Budget 2025, the Union Finance Minister announced to set up fifty thousand Atal Tinkering Labs in Government schools in next _____ years.
- A2
- B3
- C4
- D5
Answer: (D) 5
Budget 2025-26 announced 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs in government schools over the next 5 years.
Q82.SATAT initiative seen in news in November 2024 is related to which union ministry?
- AMinistry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
- BMinistry of Housing & Urban Affairs
- CMinistry of Urban Development
- DMinistry of Home Affairs
Answer: (A) Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation), the compressed biogas initiative, belongs to the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.
Q83.In Cricket, a _____ will be declared if the umpire thinks the batsman did not have a reasonable opportunity to score off the delivery.
- AFast ball
- BWide Ball
- CYorker
- DLength Ball
Answer: (B) Wide Ball
A wide is called when the umpire judges the ball too wide (or high) for the batter to have a reasonable chance to score off it.
Q84.In Track and Field Events, 800 meters and 1500 meters are of which type of race?
- ASprints
- BHurdles
- CMiddle/long
- DRoad running
Answer: (C) Middle/long
800 m and 1500 m are middle-distance races.
Q85.As of 31 July 2025, who holds the record for most Asian Games medals by an Indian athlete?
- AKD Jadhav
- BSachin Nag
- CPT Usha
- DDutee Chand
Answer: (C) PT Usha
P.T. Usha won 11 Asian Games medals (4 gold, 7 silver) from 1982 to 1994, the most by an Indian athlete.
Q86.In Cricket, a wide ball will add how many run/s to the batting team?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
Answer: (A) 1
A wide gives one extra run to the batting team (plus any runs taken), and the ball is bowled again.
Q87.As of 31 July 2025, which is the second most successful team in Ranji Trophy?
- ARailways
- BServices
- CKarnataka
- DMaharashtra
Answer: (C) Karnataka
Mumbai has the most Ranji Trophy titles; Karnataka (earlier Mysore) is second with 8.
Q88.The TrailGuard AI system has implemented as an anti-poaching tool in _____.
- APeriyar Tiger Reserve
- BValmiki Tiger Reserve
- CSimilipal Tiger Reserve
- DGir National Park
Answer: (C) Similipal Tiger Reserve
The AI-based TrailGuard camera alert system has been used as an anti-poaching tool in Similipal Tiger Reserve, Odisha.
Q89.In August 2025, Assam has launched the Operation Falcon _____.
- Ato protect one-horned rhinos from poachers
- Bto deport illegal migrants from Bangladesh to their country
- Cto tackle naxalism in the state
- Dto tackle leakages in direct benefit transfer
Answer: (A) to protect one-horned rhinos from poachers
Operation Falcon is Assam’s joint police–forest department drive to protect one-horned rhinos from poachers. It was started in 2024; in August 2025 the Chief Minister reported its results (42 arrests, no rhino poached in 2025).
Q90.Table tennis made its Olympic debut in _____.
- A1988
- B1992
- C1924
- D1928
Answer: (A) 1988
Table tennis became an Olympic sport at the 1988 Seoul Olympics.
Q91.ICC Men's ODI Cricket World Cup 2027 will be held in which continent?
- AAfrica
- BAsia
- CEurope
- DAustralia
Answer: (A) Africa
The 2027 ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup will be hosted by South Africa, Zimbabwe and Namibia, i.e. in Africa.
Q92.Which traditional dance of Tamil Nadu is performed by women dancing in a circle while clapping their hands to a rhythm?
- AKummi
- BTusu
- CGiddha
- DKathi
Answer: (A) Kummi
Kummi is a Tamil Nadu folk dance in which women dance in a circle, clapping to the rhythm.
Q93.Interest payment on debt incurred by the government is part of the _____.
- ARevenue receipt
- BRevenue expenditure
- CCapital receipt
- DCapital expenditure
Answer: (B) Revenue expenditure
Interest payments do not create assets, so they are revenue expenditure (the largest item of it).
Q94.Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Limited established as a fully owned subsidiary of the Reserve bank in the year _____.
- A1994
- B1996
- C1997
- D1995
Answer: (D) 1995
Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Pvt. Ltd. was set up as a wholly owned RBI subsidiary on 3 February 1995.
Q95.In which year was the fixed rate repos in government securities was introduced to give maneuverability in liquidity management?
- A1995
- B1997
- C1998
- D1996
Answer: (B) 1997
On 28 November 1997 the RBI introduced fixed-rate repos in government securities to manage liquidity during the Asian currency crisis.
Q96.The Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) was established in _____.
- A2004
- B2006
- C2005
- D2001
Answer: (D) 2001
The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. was incorporated on 30 April 2001 (operations from February 2002).
Q97.As per census 2001, what was the sex ratio of India?
- A933
- B912
- C920
- D981
Answer: (A) 933
The Census of 2001 recorded a sex ratio of 933 females per 1,000 males.
Q98.In the context of economy, if _____ is deducted from the gross value added to obtain the Net value added obtained.
- ADepreciation
- BNet indirect tax
- CSubsidy
- DWage
Answer: (A) Depreciation
Net value added = gross value added − depreciation (consumption of fixed capital).
Q99.Where did Siddhartha Gautam meditate for many days?
- ALumbini
- BBodh Gaya
- CVaranasi
- DUjjain
Answer: (B) Bodh Gaya
Siddhartha meditated under the Bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya, where he attained enlightenment.
Q100.On the banks of which river was the Harappan site of ‘Harappa’ discovered in 1920–22?
- ARavi
- BGanga
- CLuni
- DYamuna
Answer: (A) Ravi
Harappa, excavated by Daya Ram Sahni in 1920–21, lies on the banks of the Ravi in present-day Pakistan.
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