SSC CHSL 2025 Tier 1 Question Paper 15 November Shift 1 with Answers
- Exam date
- 15 November 2025
- Shift
- Shift 110:00 AM
SSC uploaded the final answer keys with candidates' response sheets for CHSL 2025 Tier-I on 19.03.2026. Each paper here is one shift's response sheet, keyed to SSC's marked answers.
Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.
English Language (Q1–25)
- Official paper: SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-I, held on 15 November 2025, Shift 1 (10:00 AM). Questions and the answer key are as printed on SSC’s candidate response sheet. Explanations are written by BookOfExams. Marking: +2 for a correct answer, −0.5 for a wrong one.
Q1.Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. A. The movie, B. which you recommended, C. was both interesting D. and entertain.
- AThe movie
- Bwhich you recommended
- Cwas both interesting
- Dand entertain.
Answer: (D) and entertain.
‘Both … and …’ must join words of the same form. ‘Interesting’ is an adjective, so the second word must be the adjective ‘entertaining’, not the verb ‘entertain’. The error is in part D.
Q2.Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: Abrogate
- AInstitute
- BEnact
- CRepeal
- DApprove
Answer: (C) Repeal
Abrogate means to cancel or repeal a law or agreement formally. Institute, enact and approve mean the opposite (to bring something into force).
Q3.Fill in the blank with the most appropriate phrasal verb: She was so overwhelmed with tasks that she had to _____ some responsibilities to her assistant.
- Ahand out
- Bhand down
- Chand over
- Dhand in
Answer: (C) hand over
‘Hand over’ means to pass a duty or thing to someone else. Hand out = distribute, hand down = pass to a later generation, hand in = submit.
Q4.Fill in the blank with the most appropriate phrase: Due to the budget cuts, the organization had to operate strictly _____.
- Ain a nutshell
- Bon a shoestring
- Cwith flying colors
- Dunder the radar
Answer: (B) on a shoestring
‘On a shoestring’ means with very little money, which fits budget cuts. In a nutshell = briefly; with flying colours = with great success; under the radar = unnoticed.
- Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it: Mandala art, a term derived from the Sanskrit word for “circle,” Mandalas are mathematical and metaphorical works of art that have captivated people for ages. In essence, a mandala is a circle pattern that represents the cosmos and the individual's journey. The genesis of everything, one's identity, or a heavenly essence are all represented by the design's centre. Complex and often symmetrical patterns spread forth from this hub representing the universe's growth and the continuous flow of life. Mandalas, which have their roots in both Buddhism and Hinduism, are powerful instruments for spiritual ritual and meditation. In order to symbolise the fleeting nature of life and the rejection of earthly possessions, monks painstakingly create these elaborate patterns out of coloured sand, only to brush them away when finished. Making a mandala has therapeutic benefits in addition to its religious significance. Drawing its geometric patterns in a methodical and repeated manner helps to reduce tension, improve focus, and calm the mind. The act of creating is a form of active meditation that allows the artist to concentrate and attain inner peace.
Q5.What does the term “mandala” mean in Sanskrit?
- AArtwork
- BCircle
- CMeditation
- DUniverse
Answer: (B) Circle
The first line of the passage says the term comes from the Sanskrit word for ‘circle’.
Q6.Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: EPISTEMIC
- APhysical
- BKnowledge-related
- CSymbolic
- DSpatial
Answer: (B) Knowledge-related
Epistemic means relating to knowledge or how we know things, so ‘knowledge-related’ is the synonym.
Q7.What does the center of a mandala represent?
- AThe universe
- BOne's identity or a heavenly essence
- CEarthly possessions
- DThe continuous flow of life
Answer: (B) One's identity or a heavenly essence
The passage says the genesis of everything, one’s identity, or a heavenly essence are represented by the design’s centre.
Q8.According to the passage, why do monks create mandalas out of coloured sand?
- ATo preserve the artwork
- BTo symbolize the fleeting nature of life
- CTo attract good fortune
- DTo showcase their artistic skills
Answer: (B) To symbolize the fleeting nature of life
Monks create the sand mandalas and then brush them away to symbolise the fleeting nature of life and the rejection of earthly possessions.
Q9.What therapeutic benefits are associated with making a mandala?
- AIt increases artistic creativity.
- BIt improves physical health.
- CIt helps reduce tension, and calm the mind.
- DIt helps in building wealth.
Answer: (C) It helps reduce tension, and calm the mind.
Drawing the patterns methodically ‘helps to reduce tension, improve focus, and calm the mind’. Option C matches this.
Q10.What is the primary purpose of mandalas in Buddhist and Hindu traditions?
- ATo represent artistic expression
- BTo symbolize the cosmos and the individual's journey
- CTo depict daily life
- DTo showcase geometric patterns
Answer: (B) To symbolize the cosmos and the individual's journey
The passage describes a mandala as a circle pattern that represents the cosmos and the individual’s journey, used for spiritual ritual and meditation.
Q11.Which of the following sentences uses the word “close” with the same meaning as in the following sentence? “Please be sure to close the door when you leave”
- AShe lives very close to the library.
- BThe museum is close to the park.
- CIt's a good idea to close all the windows before it starts to rain.
- DHe keeps his family photos close to his bed.
Answer: (C) It's a good idea to close all the windows before it starts to rain.
In the given sentence ‘close’ is a verb meaning to shut. Only option C (close all the windows) uses it as ‘shut’; the others use ‘close’ as an adjective meaning near.
Q12.Choose the correctly spelt word:
- AJaundice
- BJaundise
- CJoundice
- DJaundiece
Answer: (A) Jaundice
The correct spelling is ‘Jaundice’.
Q13.Choose the correctly spelt word:
- APsychology
- BPsycology
- CPsycholoy
- DPsycholgy
Answer: (A) Psychology
The correct spelling is ‘Psychology’ (p-s-y-c-h-o-l-o-g-y).
Q14.Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Sit on the fence
- ATo be very decisive about a matter
- BTo refuse to give an opinion or take a side
- CTo carefully choose a position
- DTo be in a neutral, relaxed position
Answer: (B) To refuse to give an opinion or take a side
To ‘sit on the fence’ is to avoid taking a side or giving an opinion in a dispute.
Q15.Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Futile
- AUseless
- BPointless
- CEffective
- DVain
Answer: (C) Effective
Futile means useless or producing no result. Its antonym is ‘effective’. Useless, pointless and vain are synonyms.
Q16.Choose the correct one-word substitute for: A person who studies the stars and space
- AAstrologer
- BAstronomer
- CMeteorologist
- DGeographer
Answer: (B) Astronomer
An astronomer studies stars, planets and space scientifically. An astrologer links the stars to human affairs, a meteorologist studies weather and a geographer studies the Earth’s surface.
Q17.Choose the correct one-word substitute for: A person who supports the status quo and is opposed to change
- AConservative
- BLiberal
- CReactionary
- DProgressive
Answer: (A) Conservative
A conservative supports the existing order (status quo) and opposes change. A reactionary wants to go back to an earlier state; liberals and progressives favour change.
Q18.Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Garrulous
- ATalkative
- BLoquacious
- CQuiet
- DChatty
Answer: (C) Quiet
Garrulous means excessively talkative. Its antonym is ‘quiet’; talkative, loquacious and chatty are synonyms.
Q19.Change the following sentence into the Active form. The report is expected to be delivered by the committee next week.
- AThe committee is expecting to deliver the report next week.
- BThe committee is expected to deliver the report next week.
- CThe committee expects to deliver the report next week.
- DThe committee will deliver the report next week.
Answer: (C) The committee expects to deliver the report next week.
The doer is the committee and the action is expecting to deliver the report. SSC’s key is ‘The committee expects to deliver the report next week’. Note: a strict active of the passive ‘is expected’ would be ‘It is expected that …’ / ‘People expect …’, but of the four options only C keeps the meaning in active form.
Q20.Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect voice. The tour guide said, “We have been walking for hours, but the ruins we have been looking for are just around this corner, and we will be there in a few minutes.”
- AThe tour guide said that they had been walking for hours, but the ruins they had been looking for were just around that corner, and they would be there in a few minutes.
- BThe tour guide said that we have been walking for hours, but the ruins we have been looking for are just around this corner, and we will be there in a few minutes.
- CThe tour guide said that they had been walking for hours, but the ruins they had been looking for are just around that corner, and they will be there in a few minutes.
- DThe tour guide said that they were walking for hours, but the ruins they were looking for were just around that corner, and they would be there in a few minutes.
Answer: (A) The tour guide said that they had been walking for hours, but the ruins they had been looking for were just around that corner, and they would be there in a few minutes.
In indirect speech the tenses move back (have been walking → had been walking, are → were, will → would), ‘we’ becomes ‘they’ and ‘this’ becomes ‘that’. Only option A changes all of them consistently.
Q21.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The manager was asked to write a report ‘in a quick, detailed and in a thorough manner.’ (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)
- Ain a quick, detailed, and thorough manner
- Bin a quick, detailed and in thorough manner
- Cin a quick, detailing and thorough manner
- Dquickly, detailed and thoroughly
Answer: (A) in a quick, detailed, and thorough manner
Items in a list must be parallel: ‘in a quick, detailed, and thorough manner’. The original repeats ‘in a’ before the last adjective.
Q22.Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The country has at least twenty colleges ‘of whom only six are officially recognized.’ (Highlighted part shown in quotes.)
- Aof whom only six are officially recognized
- Bof whom only six have been officially recognized
- Cof which only six has official recognition
- DOf which only six are officially recognized
Answer: (D) Of which only six are officially recognized
‘Whom’ is used for people. Colleges are things, so it should be ‘of which only six are officially recognized’. SSC’s key is option D (printed with a capital O on the sheet).
Q23.Choose the correct passive voice transformation of the sentence: Will the company launch the new product?
- AThe new product will be launched by the company?
- BWill the new product be launched by the company?
- CIs the new product launched by the company?
- DThe new product would be launched by the company?
Answer: (B) Will the new product be launched by the company?
A yes/no question in the future (Will … launch) becomes ‘Will + object + be + past participle’: Will the new product be launched by the company?
Q24.Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct voice. He said to her that the film they had watched the previous night was not as good as he had expected it to be.
- AHe said to her, “The film we watched last night was not as good as I expected it to be.”
- BHe said to her, “The film we had watched last night was not as good as I had expected it to be.”
- CHe said to her, “The film we watched the previous night was not as good as I expected it to be.”
- DHe said to her, “The film we had watched last night was not as good as I expected it to be.”
Answer: (A) He said to her, “The film we watched last night was not as good as I expected it to be.”
Going back to direct speech: ‘they’ → ‘we’, ‘he’ → ‘I’, ‘the previous night’ → ‘last night’, and past perfect → past simple (had watched → watched, had expected → expected). Option A does all of this.
Q25.Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful and grammatically correct paragraph: P: The restoration project was hailed as a triumph of community and expert cooperation Q: The valuable texts and historic architecture of the old library were preserved throughout its restoration. R: The library quickly gained international recognition as a cultural icon. S: To guarantee the restoration's correctness, local historians and preservationists collaborated.
- AR, Q, P, S
- BS, Q, P, R
- CR, S, P, Q
- DQ, S, P, R
Answer: (D) Q, S, P, R
Q introduces the restoration of the old library, S explains how its accuracy was ensured, P says the project was hailed as a triumph, and R gives the result (international recognition). Order: Q, S, P, R.
General Intelligence (Q26–50)
Q26.A bus travels at a speed of 72 km/hr. How much distance will it cover in 50 minutes?
- A50 km
- B60 km
- C70 km
- D80 km
Answer: (B) 60 km
Distance = speed × time = 72 × 50/60 = 60 km.
Q27.A car travels from town A to town B at an average speed of 60 km/hr and returns from town B to town A at an average speed of 40 km/hr. What is the average speed for the entire trip?
- A45 km/hr
- B48 km/hr
- C50 km/hr
- D52 km/hr
Answer: (B) 48 km/hr
For equal distances the average speed is 2xy/(x + y) = 2 × 60 × 40 / 100 = 48 km/hr.
Q28.If a piece of cloth is 8 meters long and 2.5 meters are cut from it, how much cloth is left?
- A5.0 meters
- B5.5 meters
- C6.0 meters
- D6.5 meters
Answer: (B) 5.5 meters
Cloth left = 8 − 2.5 = 5.5 metres.
Q29.Find the least common multiple (LCM) of 6, 9, and 12.
- A18
- B24
- C36
- D48
Answer: (C) 36
6 = 2 × 3, 9 = 3², 12 = 2² × 3. LCM = 2² × 3² = 36.
Q30.Read the following statement carefully and identify the inference that follows. Statement: The TCS company has decided to lay off 1000 employees due to financial losses. Inference: I. The company is facing financial difficulties. II. The employees who were laid off were not performing well. III. The company will be able to recover from its financial losses after the layoffs.
- AIf only I follows
- BIf only III follows
- CIf both I and II follow
- DIf both I and III follow
Answer: (A) If only I follows
Lay-offs due to financial losses imply the company is facing financial difficulty, so I follows. Nothing says the laid-off staff performed badly (II) or that the company will recover (III).
Q31.Directions: Pick the correct options from the given alternatives 10 : 729 :: 7 : ?
- A216
- B343
- C125
- D512
Answer: (A) 216
The rule is (n − 1)³: (10 − 1)³ = 9³ = 729, so (7 − 1)³ = 6³ = 216.
Q32.Which of the following numbers would replace the question mark (?) in the given number series? 2, 10, 30, ?, 130
- A48
- B58
- C68
- D78
Answer: (C) 68
Each term is n³ + n: 1 + 1 = 2, 8 + 2 = 10, 27 + 3 = 30, 64 + 4 = 68, 125 + 5 = 130. The missing term is 68.
Q33.Select the correct option that will complete the series. (3, 5), (5, 10), (7, 15), ?, (13, 25)
- A(9, 20)
- B(11, 20)
- C(8, 16)
- D(11, 25)
Answer: (B) (11, 20)
Second numbers: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25 (+5 each), so the missing pair ends in 20. First numbers: 3, 5, 7, ?, 13 are consecutive prime numbers, so the missing one is 11. Answer: (11, 20). Note: SSC’s official answer key printed (9, 20) in error; with 9 the first numbers (3, 5, 7, 9, 13) follow no rule, while primes fit every term, so we show the correct answer, (11, 20).
Q34.Find out the wrong number in the following series. 98, 79, 62, 47, 33, 23, 14
- A62
- B47
- C33
- D23
Answer: (C) 33
The differences should fall by 2 each time: 98 − 19 = 79, − 17 = 62, − 15 = 47, − 13 = 34, − 11 = 23, − 9 = 14. So 33 is wrong (it should be 34).
Q35.Three of the following are from the same category and one is different. Choose the odd one out.
- APlotter
- BJoystick
- CStylus
- DTrackball
Answer: (A) Plotter
A plotter is an output device. Joystick, stylus and trackball are input devices.
Q36.In the set of four numbers given, select the odd one out.
- A12
- B67
- C9
- D56
Answer: (B) 67
67 is the only prime number. 12, 9 and 56 are composite (each has factors other than 1 and itself).
Q37.Directions: Select the correct options from the given alternatives 10, 11.5, 13.5, 16, ?
- A17.5
- B19.5
- C19
- D20.5
Answer: (C) 19
The differences go up by 0.5: +1.5, +2, +2.5, +3, so the next is 16 + 3 = 19.
Q38.Complete the following series from the given options. m_pq_rpqm_pqmrp_
- Armrq
- Brmrp
- Cmmrq
- Dmrpq
Answer: (A) rmrq
Fill the blanks with r, m, r, q: m r p q / m r p q / m r p q / m r p q. The block ‘mrpq’ repeats.
Q39.What comes next in the following series? Z4, Y9, X25, W49, V121, ?
- AV169
- BU169
- CT289
- DU289
Answer: (B) U169
Letters go back one step (Z, Y, X, W, V, U) and numbers are squares of primes: 2², 3², 5², 7², 11², so next is 13² = 169. Answer: U169.
Q40.Find the missing term in the series. B, D, G, K, P, ?
- AV
- BW
- CU
- DX
Answer: (A) V
Positions B(2), D(4), G(7), K(11), P(16): gaps +2, +3, +4, +5, so next is +6: 22 = V.
Q41.Some letters are missing from the series. From the given alternative choose the best option which follow the pattern of the series. a _ _ f h _ c _ f _ a _ e _ h
- Ac e a h e c f
- Bc a e e h c f
- Cc e a e h c f
- De c e a f c h
Answer: (C) c e a e h c f
With c, e, a, e, h, c, f the series reads acefh / acefh / acefh, a repeating block of five letters.
Q42.If: + → ×, - → ÷, × → -, ÷ → + Then evaluate: (12 + 3) × 4 - (8 ÷ 2) + 6 = ?
- A34.6
- B32.6
- C33.6
- D33.9
Answer: (C) 33.6
After swapping signs: (12 × 3) − 4 ÷ (8 + 2) × 6 = 36 − 0.4 × 6 = 36 − 2.4 = 33.6.
Q43.If: + → -, - → ×, × → /, / → + Then evaluate: {(20 - 4) × 3 + 6} / 2 = ?
- A22
- B22.67
- C22.01
- D22.23
Answer: (B) 22.67
After swapping signs: {(20 × 4) ÷ 3 − 6} + 2 = 26.67 − 6 + 2 = 22.67.
Q44.If all novels are books and some books are boring, which of the following must be true?
- ASome novels are boring.
- BAll boring things are books.
- CSome books are novels.
- DSome boring things are novels.
Answer: (C) Some books are novels.
If all novels are books, then some books are certainly novels. Nothing links novels to the boring books, so A and D are not certain, and B reverses the statement.
Q45.Directions: Choose the related word from the given alternatives Ignition : ? :: Valve : Trumpet
- ABicycle
- BTelevision
- CMicrowave
- DCar
Answer: (D) Car
A valve is a part of a trumpet; an ignition (system) is a part of a car.
Q46.In a certain code language, 'table chair lamp' is written as 'ek, mp, su', 'lamp clock pen' is written as 'su, yz, op' and 'table pen book' is written as 'ek, op, uv'. How is 'clock' written in that language?
- Aek
- Byz
- Cmp
- Duv
Answer: (B) yz
‘lamp’ is common to the first two codes, so lamp = su. ‘pen’ is common to the last two, so pen = op. In ‘lamp clock pen’ = su, yz, op, the remaining code yz is ‘clock’.
Q47.Three of the following words are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which word does NOT belong to that group? (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) .
- AJharkhand
- BSikkim
- CGujarat
- DWest Bengal
Answer: (A) Jharkhand
Sikkim, Gujarat and West Bengal share an international border (China/Nepal/Bhutan, Pakistan, Bangladesh). Jharkhand is landlocked within India, so it is the odd one.
Q48.When all the alphabets of 'IMPLEMENTATION' are arranged in the reverse alphabetical order from left to right, then which alphabet is 6th to the right of 13th alphabet from the right end of the new word formed?
- AA
- BN
- CM
- DL
Answer: (C) M
IMPLEMENTATION in reverse alphabetical order: T T P O N N M M L I I E E A. The 13th from the right is the 2nd from the left (T); 6 places to its right is the 8th letter, M.
Q49.Find the next number. 2, 6, 30, 210, ?
- A2520
- B1890
- C1680
- D3360
Answer: (B) 1890
Multiply by 3, 5, 7, …: 2 × 3 = 6, 6 × 5 = 30, 30 × 7 = 210, 210 × 9 = 1890.
Q50.Identify the pattern in the following sequence. 99, 399, 899, 1599, 2499 What is the next number in the sequence?
- A3599
- B3499
- C3799
- D3699
Answer: (A) 3599
Each term is (10n)² − 1: 10² − 1 = 99, 20² − 1 = 399, …, 50² − 1 = 2499, so next is 60² − 1 = 3599.
Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–75)
Q51.Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
- AEvery integer is a real number
- BEvery natural number is an integer
- CEvery irrational number is rational
- DRational and irrational numbers are real numbers
Answer: (C) Every irrational number is rational
Integers and natural numbers are real; rational and irrational numbers together make the real numbers. An irrational number can never be rational, so C is false.
Q52.The decimal expansion of a rational number is:
- ANon-terminating and non-repeating
- BTerminating or repeating
- CTerminating only
- DRepeating only
Answer: (B) Terminating or repeating
A rational number p/q always has a decimal expansion that either terminates (1/4 = 0.25) or repeats (1/3 = 0.333…).
Q53.A dealer bought two antique items. On the first item, he gained 25%, and on the second, he lost 10%. The cost price of the first item was 60% more than the second. If the overall profit from both items was ₹225, find the cost price of each item.
- A₹1,250 and ₹800
- B₹1,200 and ₹750
- C₹1,100 and ₹700
- D₹1,300 and ₹850
Answer: (B) ₹1,200 and ₹750
Let the second item cost x; the first costs 1.6x. Profit = 0.25 × 1.6x − 0.10x = 0.3x = 225, so x = 750 and the first item costs 1,200. Answer: ₹1,200 and ₹750.
Q54.A dealer buys a batch of 25 pressure cookers at ₹800 each. He sells 15 of them at 20% profit and the remaining at 10% loss. Find the overall profit or loss percentage.
- A6% Profit
- B8% Profit
- C10% Profit
- D12% Loss
Answer: (B) 8% Profit
Cost = 25 × 800 = ₹20,000. Sale = 15 × 960 + 10 × 720 = 14,400 + 7,200 = ₹21,600. Profit = 1,600, which is 8% of 20,000.
Q55.12 books, each of Rs. 360, are sold at Rs. 3600. What is the percentage of the discount given?
- A16.67%
- B18%
- C15.5%
- D14.57%
Answer: (A) 16.67%
Marked total = 12 × 360 = ₹4,320. Discount = 4,320 − 3,600 = 720, which is 720/4320 = 16.67%.
Q56.A vintage clock was bought for ₹10000. Its price was marked up by 40%. Thereafter, it was sold at a discount of 10% on the marked price. What was the percentage profit on the transaction?
- A18%
- B22%
- C26%
- D20%
Answer: (C) 26%
Marked price = 1.4 × 10,000 = 14,000. Selling price = 0.9 × 14,000 = 12,600. Profit = 2,600, i.e. 26%.
Q57.A teacher calculated the average marks of 15 students in a test as 72.4. Later, she found that the marks of one student were wrongly entered as 68.9 instead of 86.3. After correcting the error, what is the correct average mark of the class?
- A73.25
- B73.56
- C72.98
- D73.00
Answer: (B) 73.56
The total rises by 86.3 − 68.9 = 17.4. New average = 72.4 + 17.4/15 = 72.4 + 1.16 = 73.56.
Q58.A student scored 20% more marks in Math than in Science. If the average of his marks in both subjects is 66, what are his marks in Science?
- A62
- B66
- C58
- D60
Answer: (D) 60
Let Science = x; Maths = 1.2x. Their sum = 2 × 66 = 132, so 2.2x = 132 and x = 60.
Q59.A school conducted a scholarship test where 60% of the students passed in English, 70% passed in Math, and 45% passed in both. What is the percentage of students who passed in at least one subject?
- A90%
- B75%
- C85%
- D80%
Answer: (C) 85%
At least one subject = English + Maths − both = 60 + 70 − 45 = 85%.
Q60.A and B invest ₹30,000 and ₹50,000 respectively. After 6 months, C joins with ₹60,000. What will be the ratio of their profits at the end of the year?
- A5:3:2
- B6:5:4
- C2:4:5
- D3:5:3
Answer: (D) 3:5:3
Capital × months: A = 30,000 × 12, B = 50,000 × 12, C = 60,000 × 6, i.e. 3,60,000 : 6,00,000 : 3,60,000 = 3 : 5 : 3.
Q61.A, B, and C invest ₹20,000, ₹30,000, and ₹50,000, respectively, in a business. The profit at the end of the year is ₹50,000. What is B's share of the profit?
- ARs. 15000
- BRs. 16000
- CRs. 17000
- DRs. 18000
Answer: (A) Rs. 15000
Ratio 20,000 : 30,000 : 50,000 = 2 : 3 : 5. B’s share = 3/10 × 50,000 = ₹15,000.
Q62.The total surface area of a cylinder is equal to its volume. Find the relation between radius and height.
- Ah = r/(r − 2)
- Bh = 2r/(r − 2)
- Ch = 3r/(r − 2)
- Dh = 4r/(r − 2)
Answer: (B) h = 2r/(r − 2)
TSA = volume: 2πr(r + h) = πr²h → 2r + 2h = rh → h(r − 2) = 2r → h = 2r/(r − 2).
Q63.A circle is inscribed within a square with a side length of 18 cm. Find the area of the part of the square not covered by the circle.
- A64.12 cm²
- B69.53 cm²
- C74.28 cm²
- D80.00 cm²
Answer: (B) 69.53 cm²
Square area = 18² = 324. The inscribed circle has radius 9, area = π × 81 ≈ 254.47. Uncovered part ≈ 324 − 254.47 = 69.53 cm².
Q64.If a² + b² + c² = 240 and ab − bc − ca = 64, then find the value of (a + b − c)².
- A368
- B321
- C340
- D388
Answer: (A) 368
(a + b − c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2(ab − bc − ca) = 240 + 2 × 64 = 368.
Q65.A cone and a hemisphere have equal curved surface areas and radius r. Find the slant height of the cone.
- Al = 3r
- Bl = 4r
- Cl = 2r
- Dl = 5r
Answer: (C) l = 2r
Cone CSA = πrl and hemisphere CSA = 2πr². Setting them equal gives l = 2r.
Q66.If 4cosA + 3secA = 4√3, 0° < A < 90°, then the value of ‘A’ is:
- A45°
- B25°
- C30°
- D60°
Answer: (C) 30°
Try A = 30°: cos 30° = √3/2, sec 30° = 2/√3. 4(√3/2) + 3(2/√3) = 2√3 + 2√3 = 4√3. So A = 30°.
Q67.If 2 sin²A + 2√2 cos A − 3 = 0, then find the value of tan A.
- A1
- B√2
- C(1/√2)
- D0
Answer: (A) 1
Use sin²A = 1 − cos²A: 2 − 2cos²A + 2√2 cosA − 3 = 0 → 2cos²A − 2√2 cosA + 1 = 0 → (√2 cosA − 1)² = 0, so cosA = 1/√2, A = 45° and tanA = 1.
Q68.A man and a boy received Rs. 600 as wages for 5 days for the work they did together. The man's efficiency in the work was twice that of the boy. What are the daily wages of the boy?
- A45/-
- B25/-
- C50/-
- D40/-
Answer: (D) 40/-
Wages per day = 600/5 = ₹120, shared in the ratio of efficiency man : boy = 2 : 1. Boy’s daily wage = 120/3 = ₹40.
Q69.If a solid sphere is cut into two equal hemispheres, by what percentage is the total surface area increased?
- A33.33%
- B50%
- C66.66%
- D100%
Answer: (B) 50%
Sphere TSA = 4πr². Two hemispheres: 2 × 3πr² = 6πr². Increase = 2πr², i.e. 50%.
Q70.A rectangular parallelepiped has its base diagonal equal to 17 cm and height 15 cm. If the area of its base is 120 cm², find the total surface area of the parallelepiped.
- A860 cm²
- B930 cm²
- C720 cm²
- D890 cm²
Answer: (B) 930 cm²
l² + b² = 17² = 289 and lb = 120, so (l + b)² = 289 + 240 = 529 and l + b = 23. TSA = 2lb + 2h(l + b) = 240 + 2 × 15 × 23 = 930 cm².
Q71.If x = √2 + √3, find x³ − 3x.
- A2√2 + 3√3
- B8√2 − 6√3
- C8√2 + 6√3
- D2√2 − 3√3
Answer: (C) 8√2 + 6√3
x³ = (√2 + √3)³ = 2√2 + 6√3 + 9√2 + 3√3 = 11√2 + 9√3. Subtract 3x = 3√2 + 3√3: x³ − 3x = 8√2 + 6√3.
Q72.A regular right pyramid has a square base with side length 16 cm and a height of 30 cm. Calculate the slant height and total surface area. (in approx)
- A31.05 cm, 1249.6 cm²
- B24.45 cm, 1180.8 cm²
- C28.12 cm, 1230.2 cm²
- D30.12 cm, 1530.2 cm²
Answer: (A) 31.05 cm, 1249.6 cm²
Slant height = √(30² + 8²) = √964 ≈ 31.05 cm. TSA = base + 4 triangles = 256 + 4 × ½ × 16 × 31.05 ≈ 256 + 993.6 = 1249.6 cm².
Q73.A regular right pyramid with an equilateral triangular base of side 18 cm is completely submerged in a cylindrical tank of radius 10 cm, initially filled with water to a height of 25 cm. The pyramid's apex just touches the bottom of the tank. Given that the water level in the tank rises to 28 cm after the pyramid is submerged, find the perpendicular height of the pyramid.
- A23 cm
- B27.12 cm
- C20.14 cm
- D28 cm
Answer: (C) 20.14 cm
Volume of water displaced = π × 10² × 3 ≈ 942.48 cm³. Base area of the pyramid = (√3/4) × 18² ≈ 140.30 cm². Height = 3V/base ≈ 2827.4/140.3 ≈ 20.15 cm, i.e. about 20.14 cm.
Q74.Two vessels contain mixtures of milk and water in the ratios 3:2 and 7:3, respectively. In what ratio should these mixtures be mixed so that the resulting mixture has milk and water in the ratio 5:3?
- A1:2
- B2:3
- C3:1
- D3:2
Answer: (C) 3:1
Milk fractions: 3/5 = 0.6, 7/10 = 0.7, target 5/8 = 0.625. By alligation, (0.7 − 0.625) : (0.625 − 0.6) = 0.075 : 0.025 = 3 : 1.
Q75.A sum is invested at compound interest (compounded annually) at a certain rate. The interest earned in the 1st year is Rs. 2,000, and in the 2nd year it is Rs. 2,400. Find 50% of the sum invested.
- ARs. 4,000
- BRs. 7,000
- CRs. 5,000
- DRs. 8,000
Answer: (C) Rs. 5,000
Second-year interest is first-year interest plus interest on it: 2,400 − 2,000 = 400 = 20% of 2,000, so the rate is 20%. Sum = 2,000/0.20 = ₹10,000; 50% of it = ₹5,000.
General Awareness (Q76–100)
Q76.During the Delhi Sultanate period, which one of the following taxes was levied on treasure looted in war?
- AKharaj
- BJizyah
- CZakat
- DKhums
Answer: (D) Khums
Khums was the tax on war booty and treasure (one-fifth of the plunder). Kharaj was the land tax, jizyah the tax on non-Muslims and zakat the religious tax on Muslims.
Q77.Where did the Gaddi tribe's shepherds live in the fourteenth century?
- AWestern Himalayas
- BMysore
- CBijapur
- DNorth-east India
Answer: (A) Western Himalayas
The Gaddi shepherds lived in the Western Himalayas (present-day Himachal Pradesh), moving seasonally between pastures.
Q78.As of 31st July 2025, which of the following country is NOT the member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations?
- AIndonesia
- BMalaysia
- CPakistan
- DPhilippines
Answer: (C) Pakistan
ASEAN’s members are Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia (Timor-Leste joined later, in October 2025). Pakistan is not a member.
Q79.Which of the following is the joint military exercise between India and Nepal?
- ASurya Kiran
- BIndra
- CVajra Prahar
- DMalabar
Answer: (A) Surya Kiran
Surya Kiran is the India–Nepal joint military exercise. Indra is with Russia, Vajra Prahar with the USA (special forces) and Malabar is a multilateral naval exercise.
Q80.What name was given to Bal Gangadhar Tilak by the British rulers?
- AThe Father of the Indian Unrest
- BNational Treasure of India
- CIron Man of India
- DThe Father of Undivided India
Answer: (A) The Father of the Indian Unrest
British journalist Valentine Chirol called Bal Gangadhar Tilak ‘The Father of the Indian Unrest’.
Q81.Who was the first recipient of the Best Actor at the National Film Awards?
- AUttam Kumar
- BPrithviraj Kapoor
- CAshok Kumar
- DDev Anand
Answer: (A) Uttam Kumar
Uttam Kumar was the first winner of the National Film Award for Best Actor (then the Bharat Award) in 1968, for Antony Firingee and Chiriyakhana (1967 films).
Q82.In November 2024, who has been appointed as High Commissioner of India to the Republic of Maldives?
- ASanjiv Ranjan
- BG. Balasubramanian
- CRajesh Kumar Singh
- DVitul Kumar
Answer: (B) G. Balasubramanian
On 25 November 2024 the MEA announced G. Balasubramanian (IFS 1998), then High Commissioner to Nigeria, as the next High Commissioner of India to the Maldives.
Q83.“UDISE+” which was in news in February 2025, is related to which of the following sector?
- AEducation
- BTourism
- CTrade and commerce
- DExport
Answer: (A) Education
UDISE+ (Unified District Information System for Education Plus) is the Ministry of Education’s school education database.
Q84.In Union Budget 2025-26, Jal Jeevan Mission has been extended until _____.
- A2035
- B2032
- C2028
- D2030
Answer: (C) 2028
In the Union Budget 2025-26 the Finance Minister extended the Jal Jeevan Mission until 2028 with an enhanced outlay.
Q85.Which of the following sports is played on water?
- ABadminton
- BBasketball
- CSurfing
- DCricket
Answer: (C) Surfing
Surfing is a water sport. Badminton, basketball and cricket are played on courts or grounds.
Q86.The term Decathlon and Heptathlon are related to which of the following?
- AAthletics events
- BBadminton match types
- CSwimming styles
- DGolf area types
Answer: (A) Athletics events
Decathlon (10 events, men) and heptathlon (7 events, women) are combined athletics events.
Q87.The 8th India Water Week 2024 was held during 17-20 September 2024, in _____.
- ABhopal
- BChandigarh
- CNew Delhi
- DMumbai
Answer: (C) New Delhi
The 8th India Water Week was held from 17 to 20 September 2024 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, and was inaugurated by President Droupadi Murmu.
Q88.Volleyball was introduced in the Asian Games in _____ for women.
- A1962
- B1951
- C1954
- D1982
Answer: (A) 1962
Volleyball for women was introduced at the 1962 Asian Games in Jakarta.
Q89.As of June 2025, how many Ramsar site are there in India?
- A91
- B155
- C79
- D123
Answer: (A) 91
With Khichan (Phalodi) and Menar (Udaipur) in Rajasthan added on 4 June 2025, India had 91 Ramsar sites.
Q90.Beach Volleyball World Championships 2025 will be held in which country?
- ASpain
- BBrazil
- CAustralia
- DEngland
Answer: (C) Australia
The 2025 FIVB Beach Volleyball World Championships were held in Adelaide, Australia, from 14 to 23 November 2025.
Q91.'Manimahesh fair' is held in which of the following state?
- AKerala
- BHimachal Pradesh
- CTamil Nadu
- DAssam
Answer: (B) Himachal Pradesh
The Manimahesh fair (Manimahesh Yatra) is held at the Manimahesh lake in Chamba district, Himachal Pradesh.
Q92.The first temple-building activity in India began during the rule of which dynasty?
- AGupta Dynasty
- BAhom Kingdom
- CVijayanagara Empire
- DGurjara-Pratihara Dynasty
Answer: (A) Gupta Dynasty
Structural temple building in India began under the Guptas (e.g. Dashavatara temple, Deogarh; Bhitargaon brick temple).
Q93.'Jaago' dance is related to which of the following state?
- APunjab
- BJharkhand
- COdisha
- DMaharashtra
Answer: (A) Punjab
Jaago is a Punjabi folk dance and song performed on the night before a wedding, with a decorated pot (gaagar) of lamps.
Q94.Why can a geo-stationary satellite monitor the movement of clouds accurately?
- ABecause it moves in North to South direction.
- BBecause it moves in South to North direction.
- CBecause it is stationary relative to any place on Earth.
- DBecause it rotates faster than Earth.
Answer: (C) Because it is stationary relative to any place on Earth.
A geostationary satellite moves with the Earth’s rotation, so it stays over the same place and can watch the same area (and its clouds) continuously.
Q95.An object weighs 18 N when measured on the surface of the earth. What would be its weight when measured on the surface of the moon?
- A1 N
- B3 N
- C7 N
- D9 N
Answer: (B) 3 N
Gravity on the Moon is about one-sixth of that on Earth, so the weight is 18/6 = 3 N.
Q96.What immediate measure was taken in 1991 to resolve the balance of payments crisis in India?
- AIncreases restrictions on import.
- BDevaluation of the rupee against foreign currencies.
- CRevaluation of the rupee against foreign currencies.
- DIntroduction of fixed exchange rate.
Answer: (B) Devaluation of the rupee against foreign currencies.
In July 1991 the RBI devalued the rupee (by about 18–19% in two steps) to tackle the balance of payments crisis.
Q97.In which year did Maharaja Ranjit Singh established his capital at Lahore?
- A1829
- B1821
- C1801
- D1799
Answer: (D) 1799
Ranjit Singh captured Lahore in 1799 and made it his capital.
Q98.As per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act-2003, which of the following is NOT laid before both the house of parliament along with Annual Financial statement?
- AThe medium term fiscal policy statement
- BThe fiscal policy strategy statement
- CThe macroeconomic framework statement
- DThe monetary policy statement
Answer: (D) The monetary policy statement
Under the FRBM Act, 2003 the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and the Macro-economic Framework Statement are laid with the Budget. The monetary policy statement is issued by the RBI, not laid with the Budget.
Q99.Which of the following organ can be donated while the donor is alive? I. Part of a liver II. Kidney
- AOnly I
- BOnly II
- CBoth I and II
- DNeither I nor II
Answer: (C) Both I and II
A living donor can give a kidney or a part of the liver (the liver regrows), so both I and II are correct.
Q100.The most important achievement of Shishunaga was _____.
- Aconquering Kalinga
- Bbuilding Pataliputra fort
- Cholding the first Buddhist council
- Ddefeating Avanti (Malwa) and annexing it to Magadh
Answer: (D) defeating Avanti (Malwa) and annexing it to Magadh
Shishunaga’s main achievement was defeating the Pradyota dynasty of Avanti (Malwa) and annexing it to Magadha.
Practise this paper under exam conditions
100 questions, 60-minute timer, negative marking and a score report.
Attempt online