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Memory-Based PaperPrelims100 Questions · 60 Min

SBI PO 2025 Prelims Memory-Based Paper 4 August Shift 2 with Answers

Exam date
4 August 2025
Shift
Shift 2
Source
Memory-based (candidate recall)

SBI does not publish question papers or answer keys. These papers are rebuilt from candidates' recall of the shift, written fresh and fully re-checked.

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English - Sentence Improvement (Q1–2)

  1. Q1.Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Choose the option that best replaces the part in single quotes. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. 'If he would have prepared better', he might have cleared the interview.

    • AIf he prepared better
    • BIf he would prepare better
    • CIf he had prepared better
    • DIf he has prepared better
    • ENo replacement required

    Answer: (C) If he had prepared better

    This is a third conditional about an unreal past situation. The if-clause takes the past perfect ('had + past participle') and the main clause takes 'might/would have + past participle'. 'Would have' is never used in the if-clause, so the correct form is 'If he had prepared better'.

  2. Q2.Directions: Choose the option that best replaces the part in single quotes. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. The doctor recommended 'that she takes complete rest' for a week.

    • Athat she take complete rest
    • Bthat she taking complete rest
    • Cthat she had take complete rest
    • Dthat she has took complete rest
    • ENo replacement required

    Answer: (A) that she take complete rest

    Verbs such as recommend, suggest, insist and demand are followed by the subjunctive: the base form of the verb for every subject. So 'recommended that she take complete rest' is correct. 'Takes' is the ordinary present form, and the other options are ungrammatical.

English - Reading Comprehension (Q3–12)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions. Over the last twenty years, researchers have stressed how much accessible communication and inclusive programmes matter for people with disabilities. The World Health Organization estimates that about 1.3 billion people, roughly one in six worldwide, live with a significant disability, and barriers to communication are among the most serious problems they face. For people who are deaf or hard of hearing, sign language remains the main means of communication. Studies show that children who are exposed to sign language early develop stronger thinking skills, better literacy and smoother social integration. Yet obstacles remain, chiefly a shortage of trained interpreters and low public awareness. In one small study, researchers working with 20 people with hearing impairments ____________. They found that while basic signs were widely understood, understanding fell sharply when regional variations or complex grammatical structures were used, which shows the need for standardised learning and wider public training. To close these gaps, several disability associations have launched bold initiatives, including large-scale sign language classes for both disabled and non-disabled people. This direct approach builds mutual understanding and reduces social isolation. Research also points to the growing role of music in disability support. Although music is usually linked with hearing, music therapy uses rhythm, vibration and movement to stimulate several senses at once. Vibrations from instruments, particularly drums and other percussion, can be felt and enjoyed by people with hearing impairments. For people with mobility or cognitive difficulties, structured music activities improve coordination, memory and emotional well-being. Music therapy is not limited to passive listening. Interactive methods such as drumming circles, rhythm exercises and movement-to-music sessions encourage active participation. Neurological studies suggest that such activities promote neuroplasticity, strengthening connections in the brain and supporting rehabilitation for people adjusting to long-term disabilities. Many associations have joined international partnerships to share expertise on combining communication tools with creative therapies, and reports suggest that pairing sign language access with music-based programmes leads to measurable gains in social participation, self-confidence and mental health. The evidence, in short, supports combining accessible communication with activities that engage all the senses, so that people with disabilities can take part fully in community life.

    Q3.According to the passage, what was the key finding of the small study involving people with hearing impairments?

    • AMost participants did not know any form of sign language.
    • BRegional variations and complex grammatical structures made signs harder to understand.
    • CParticipants preferred music therapy to sign language.
    • DUrban participants understood signs better than rural participants.
    • ESigns could not be understood at all without a written translation.

    Answer: (B) Regional variations and complex grammatical structures made signs harder to understand.

    Paragraph 2: basic signs were widely understood, but 'understanding fell sharply when regional variations or complex grammatical structures were used'. The other options are not stated.

  2. Q4.Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage? (I) Music therapy benefits only people with hearing impairments. (II) Structured music activities help memory and emotional well-being. (III) Communication barriers are among the most serious problems faced by people with disabilities.

    • AOnly II
    • BBoth I and II
    • CBoth II and III
    • DBoth I and III
    • EAll I, II and III

    Answer: (C) Both II and III

    II is stated in paragraph 4 and III in paragraph 1. I is false: the passage says music therapy also helps people with mobility or cognitive difficulties, not only those with hearing impairments. So II and III.

  3. Q5.According to the passage, what do neurological studies suggest about interactive music therapy?

    • AIt shortens attention span and discourages repeated practice.
    • BIt strengthens connections in the brain and supports rehabilitation for long-term disabilities.
    • CIt overstimulates people who are sensitive to sound.
    • DIt encourages passive reflection and slows recovery.
    • EIt helps only caregivers and families build social bonds.

    Answer: (B) It strengthens connections in the brain and supports rehabilitation for long-term disabilities.

    Paragraph 5: such activities 'promote neuroplasticity, strengthening connections in the brain and supporting rehabilitation for people adjusting to long-term disabilities'.

  4. Q6.Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a difficulty in the use of sign language?

    • APoor understanding of regional sign variations
    • BA shortage of trained interpreters
    • CLow public awareness of sign language
    • DDifficulty in understanding complex grammatical structures in signs
    • EOveruse of sign language among non-disabled people

    Answer: (E) Overuse of sign language among non-disabled people

    The passage names a shortage of interpreters, low public awareness, regional variations and complex grammar as problems. It never says that non-disabled people overuse sign language; in fact it praises teaching them sign language.

  5. Q7.Choose the word most similar in meaning to 'bold' as used in the passage.

    • ATimid
    • BSelective
    • CHesitant
    • DDaring
    • ECautious

    Answer: (D) Daring

    'Bold initiatives' are ambitious, daring steps. Cautious, timid and hesitant are opposites, and selective does not fit.

  6. Q8.Choose the word most similar in meaning to 'direct' as used in the passage.

    • AConfused
    • BStraightforward
    • CSubtle
    • DDelayed
    • EIndirect

    Answer: (B) Straightforward

    A 'direct approach' (teaching sign language to everyone) is a straightforward one, without go-betweens. Indirect and subtle are opposites; delayed and confused do not fit.

  7. Q9.Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'joined' as used in the passage.

    • AUnited
    • BParticipated
    • CEntered
    • DLeft
    • ECombined

    Answer: (D) Left

    Associations 'have joined international partnerships', i.e. become members of them. The opposite is 'left'. United, participated, entered and combined are close in meaning to joined.

  8. Q10.Which of the following best fills the blank in paragraph 2?

    • Aanalysed how music therapy affects speech in deaf children
    • Binvestigated the difficulties people face in understanding sign language
    • Ccounted how often participants used facial expressions instead of hand signs
    • Dassessed the role of interpreters in city hospitals
    • Eexamined vocabulary retention in bilingual classrooms

    Answer: (B) investigated the difficulties people face in understanding sign language

    The next sentence reports what was found about understanding signs (basic signs understood, regional and complex signs not). So the study must have investigated difficulties in understanding sign language.

  9. Q11.Which of the following statements is/are true according to the passage? (I) Music therapy relies only on hearing and is unsuitable for people with hearing impairments. (II) Understanding of signs fell when regional differences and complex grammar were involved. (III) Sign language classes are being run for both disabled and non-disabled people.

    • AOnly II
    • BOnly III
    • CBoth I and III
    • DBoth II and III
    • EAll I, II and III

    Answer: (D) Both II and III

    II (paragraph 2) and III (paragraph 3) are stated. I is false: the passage says percussion vibrations can be felt and enjoyed by people with hearing impairments.

  10. Q12.Which of the following statements is/are FALSE according to the passage? (I) Music therapy is mainly a passive listening activity meant to calm people. (II) According to the WHO, about 1.3 billion people worldwide live with communication disorders. (III) One difficulty with sign language is understanding regional and grammatical variations.

    • AOnly I
    • BBoth I and II
    • COnly II
    • DBoth II and III
    • EAll I, II and III

    Answer: (B) Both I and II

    I is false: the passage says music therapy 'is not limited to passive listening'. II is false: the WHO figure of 1.3 billion is for people living with a significant disability, not with communication disorders. III is true. So I and II are false.

English - Para Jumbles (Q13–17)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Rearrange the six sentences (A) to (F) to form a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions. (A) Going through these records, he found that a large share of the patients had been diagnosed before the age of 65. (B) Recently, scientists identified a genetic marker linked to the early-onset form of the disease. (C) Alzheimer's disease is a brain disorder that slowly destroys memory and the ability to think. (D) Building on this lead, a researcher named Rohan studied patient data from 48 states of the USA. (E) This finding points to the need for early screening and preventive treatment. (F) The decline is made worse by the fact that most existing treatments only manage the symptoms.

    Q13.Which sentence comes FIRST after rearrangement?

    • AD
    • BA
    • CB
    • DE
    • EC

    Answer: (E) C

    Correct order: C-F-B-D-A-E. C introduces the disease; F continues with its decline ('The decline'); B brings in the recent discovery; D follows from it ('this lead'); A reports what the records showed ('these records'); E draws the conclusion ('This finding'). First: C.

  2. Q14.Which sentence comes THIRD after rearrangement?

    • AF
    • BE
    • CB
    • DD
    • EC

    Answer: (C) B

    Correct order: C-F-B-D-A-E. C introduces the disease; F continues with its decline ('The decline'); B brings in the recent discovery; D follows from it ('this lead'); A reports what the records showed ('these records'); E draws the conclusion ('This finding'). Third: B.

  3. Q15.Which sentence comes LAST (SIXTH) after rearrangement?

    • AC
    • BD
    • CB
    • DA
    • EE

    Answer: (E) E

    Correct order: C-F-B-D-A-E. C introduces the disease; F continues with its decline ('The decline'); B brings in the recent discovery; D follows from it ('this lead'); A reports what the records showed ('these records'); E draws the conclusion ('This finding'). Last: E.

  4. Q16.Which sentence comes SECOND after rearrangement?

    • AB
    • BC
    • CE
    • DF
    • ED

    Answer: (D) F

    Correct order: C-F-B-D-A-E. C introduces the disease; F continues with its decline ('The decline'); B brings in the recent discovery; D follows from it ('this lead'); A reports what the records showed ('these records'); E draws the conclusion ('This finding'). Second: F.

  5. Q17.Which sentence comes FOURTH after rearrangement?

    • AC
    • BD
    • CE
    • DB
    • EA

    Answer: (B) D

    Correct order: C-F-B-D-A-E. C introduces the disease; F continues with its decline ('The decline'); B brings in the recent discovery; D follows from it ('this lead'); A reports what the records showed ('these records'); E draws the conclusion ('This finding'). Fourth: D.

English - Cloze Test (Q18–23)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: In the passage below, each blank is marked with a letter. Choose the word or phrase that fits each blank most appropriately. Rayan was once a name heard in every concert hall. His first concert was a ____ (A) success: tickets sold out within minutes and fans cheered until dawn. Critics called his voice both raw and heavenly, a rare mix that made him an overnight ____ (B) in the music industry. At first Rayan stayed grounded and gave credit to his team, his parents and the jazz legends who had inspired him. But as his fame grew, so did his ____ (C). He began arriving late for rehearsals, brushing aside his bandmates' ideas and cancelling small-town shows that had once meant everything to him. His performances lost their magic, and his new songs lacked the emotional ____ (D) that had once moved audiences. Social media, once full of praise, now carried harsh reviews. Despite several attempts by his publicists to ____ (E) his image, audiences had moved on to fresh voices. Sitting backstage after a half-empty show, Rayan realised how far he had drifted from the soul of his music. A journey that had begun with passion had been ____ (F) by pride.

    Q18.Which word fits blank (A)?

    • Apredictable
    • Bmediocre
    • Ccolossal
    • Dtrivial
    • Eobscure

    Answer: (C) colossal

    Tickets sold out within minutes, so the success was huge: colossal. Mediocre (average), trivial (unimportant), obscure (little known) and predictable do not match a sell-out debut.

  2. Q19.Which word fits blank (B)?

    • Asensation
    • Bnovice
    • Cunderstudy
    • Drecluse
    • Eveteran

    Answer: (A) sensation

    Critics' praise made him an overnight star, i.e. a sensation. A recluse avoids people, a veteran has long experience, a novice is a beginner and an understudy is a stand-in performer.

  3. Q20.Which word fits blank (C)?

    • Aego
    • Bgratitude
    • Cdiscipline
    • Ddiligence
    • Ehumility

    Answer: (A) ego

    The behaviour that follows (arriving late, ignoring bandmates) shows growing self-importance: his ego grew. Discipline, diligence, humility and gratitude are the qualities he was losing.

  4. Q21.Which word fits blank (D)?

    • Adistortion
    • Bdetachment
    • Cresonance
    • Dmonotony
    • Evolume

    Answer: (C) resonance

    His new songs lacked the emotional depth that once moved audiences: emotional resonance. Detachment, monotony and distortion are negatives he would not 'lack', and volume is about loudness.

  5. Q22.Which phrase fits blank (E)?

    • Agive away
    • Blook down
    • Ctear up
    • Dbrush off
    • Epatch up

    Answer: (E) patch up

    Publicists try to repair a damaged image: 'patch up' means to repair or mend. Look down, tear up, brush off and give away do not mean repairing.

  6. Q23.Which word fits blank (F)?

    • Ainspired
    • Badored
    • Cnurtured
    • Ddismantled
    • Eelevated

    Answer: (D) dismantled

    Pride destroyed a journey that began with passion: it was dismantled (taken apart, ruined). Nurtured, elevated, inspired and adored are all positive.

English - Error Spotting (Q24–27)

  1. Q24.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Hardly had she (A)/ reached the station (B)/ than the train (C)/ pulled out. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (C) C

    'Hardly' and 'scarcely' are followed by 'when' (or 'before'), not 'than'. ('No sooner' takes 'than'.) Part (C) should read 'when the train'.

  2. Q25.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. By the time we will reach (A)/ the stadium and (B)/ find our seats, the (C)/ match will have begun. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (A) A

    A time clause beginning with 'by the time' uses the simple present for a future event, not 'will'. Part (A) should be 'By the time we reach'.

  3. Q26.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Decades of neglect and (A)/ poor maintenance had slowly took (B)/ a toll on the old fort, (C)/ leaving its walls badly cracked. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (B) B

    The past perfect is 'had + past participle'. The past participle of 'take' is 'taken', so part (B) should read 'had slowly taken'.

  4. Q27.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Nobody saw (A)/ him since the old (B)/ bridge collapsed (C)/ during the storm. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (A) A

    'Since' + a point in the past needs the present perfect in the main clause: 'Nobody has seen him since...'. The error is in part (A).

English - Word Swap (Q28–32)

  1. Q28.Directions: The words marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange that makes the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. Good listening skills help in building (A) stronger disputes (B) and resolving relationships (C) at the workplace (D).

    • AA-B
    • BC-B and A-D
    • CC-D
    • DB-C
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (D) B-C

    We build relationships and resolve disputes. Swapping B and C gives 'building stronger relationships and resolving disputes at the workplace'.

  2. Q29.Directions: The words marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange that makes the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. Honest (A) feedback and a clear achieving (B) help a team move towards understanding (C) common targets and ensure steady progress (D).

    • AA-B
    • BC-B and A-D
    • CC-D
    • DB-C
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (D) B-C

    The team needs 'a clear understanding' and moves towards 'achieving common targets'. Swapping B and C fixes the sentence. Swapping A and D as well would give 'Progress feedback ... ensure steady honest', which is meaningless.

  3. Q30.Directions: The words marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange that makes the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. Steady effort (A) and regular revision are essential (B) for mastering difficult concepts (C) and building lasting confidence (D).

    • AA-B
    • BC-B and A-D
    • CC-D
    • DB-C
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (E) No interchange required

    The sentence already reads correctly: effort and revision are essential for mastering concepts and building confidence. No interchange is needed.

  4. Q31.Directions: The words marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange that makes the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. Staying curious (A) and open to feedback prepares (B) growth and encourages (C) people for new roles and responsibilities (D).

    • AB-C
    • BC-B and A-D
    • CA-C and B-D
    • DA-B
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (A) B-C

    Being open to feedback 'encourages growth' and 'prepares people for new roles'. Swapping B and C gives the correct sentence. The A-D swap in option 2 would make it meaningless ('Staying responsibilities').

  5. Q32.Directions: The words marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be in the wrong places. Choose the interchange that makes the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. If no interchange is needed, choose 'No interchange required'. Proper scheduling and (A) quick implementation in (B) plans can (C) greatly raise efficiency and output of (D) difficult times.

    • AA-B
    • BC-B and A-D
    • CA-C and B-D
    • DB-D
    • ENo interchange required

    Answer: (D) B-D

    We speak of 'implementation of plans' and output 'in difficult times'. Swapping B ('in') and D ('of') gives 'quick implementation of plans can greatly raise efficiency and output in difficult times'.

English - Word Usage (Q33–36)

  1. Q33.Directions: A word is given, followed by three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) in which the word is used correctly in grammar and in meaning. INCESSANT (A) The incessant honking of horns gave the residents a headache. (B) The incessant meeting lasted only ten minutes before it was called off. (C) The child's incessant questions kept his parents busy all evening.

    • AOnly A
    • BOnly B
    • CBoth A and B
    • DAll of these
    • EBoth A and C

    Answer: (E) Both A and C

    'Incessant' means continuing without a pause, usually of something annoying. A (honking) and C (questions) are correct. B is wrong: a meeting that lasted only ten minutes and was called off was not incessant.

  2. Q34.Directions: A word is given, followed by three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) in which the word is used correctly in grammar and in meaning. BREAK (A) They decided to take a short break after working for three hours without stopping. (B) The thief managed to break into the shop without setting off the alarm. (C) The vase will break beauty once it is placed on the table.

    • AOnly A
    • BOnly B
    • CBoth B and C
    • DAll of these
    • EBoth A and B

    Answer: (E) Both A and B

    A uses 'break' as a noun (a pause) and B uses the phrasal verb 'break into' (enter by force); both are correct. C is meaningless: a vase can add beauty, not 'break beauty'.

  3. Q35.Directions: A word is given, followed by three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) in which the word is used correctly in grammar and in meaning. BORNE OUT (A) His claims were borne out by the evidence presented during the inquiry. (B) The heavy load was too much to be borne out by the fragile wooden shelf. (C) Her success was borne out of years of hard work.

    • AOnly A
    • BOnly B
    • CBoth A and B
    • DAll of these
    • EBoth A and C

    Answer: (A) Only A

    'Borne out' means confirmed or supported (by evidence), so A is correct. In B the shelf simply 'bore' (carried) the load; 'out' is wrong. C needs 'born out of' (arising from), not 'borne out of'.

  4. Q36.Directions: A word is given, followed by three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) in which the word is used correctly in grammar and in meaning. ESSENCE (A) The essence of her argument was that fairness should come before profit. (B) The perfume was made from natural rose essence, which gave it a soft fragrance. (C) He essence the report so that it showed only the main findings.

    • AOnly A
    • BOnly B
    • CBoth A and B
    • DAll of these
    • EBoth A and C

    Answer: (C) Both A and B

    'Essence' is a noun meaning the core of something (A) or a concentrated extract (B). C wrongly uses it as a verb; 'summarised' or 'condensed' is needed.

English - Sentence Rearrangement (Q37–40)

  1. Q37.Directions: Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in a meaningful order. P. Her honesty and simple way of life had won her great respect. Q. People from far-off villages came to her for advice and help. R. Meena was known across the district as a fair-minded teacher. S. They trusted her more than they trusted the local officials.

    • ASRPQ
    • BRPQS
    • CRPSQ
    • DPRSQ
    • EQRSP

    Answer: (B) RPQS

    R introduces Meena. P explains her respect ('Her honesty'). Q shows the result (people came to her). S follows Q, because 'They' refers to the people in Q. Order: RPQS.

  2. Q38.Directions: Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in a meaningful order. P. The din of the drums frightened the elephant back into the forest. Q. The villagers rushed out, beating drums and tin cans. R. A wild elephant had strayed into the sugarcane fields at night. S. A farmer spotted it and raised an alarm.

    • ARSPQ
    • BSPQR
    • CRQSP
    • DRSQP
    • EPQRS

    Answer: (D) RSQP

    R sets the scene, S follows (the farmer spots 'it'), Q is the response to the alarm, and P can only come after Q because 'the drums' are first mentioned in Q. Order: RSQP.

  3. Q39.Directions: Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in a meaningful order. P. With steady effort, she finally cleared the examination. Q. Priya had always dreamt of becoming a civil servant. R. She faced many setbacks along the way. S. But she never lost sight of her goal.

    • ARSPQ
    • BQPRS
    • CQRSP
    • DPRSQ
    • EQSRP

    Answer: (C) QRSP

    Q introduces Priya's dream, R mentions setbacks, S contrasts with 'But', and P gives the outcome. Order: QRSP.

  4. Q40.Directions: Arrange the sentences P, Q, R and S in a meaningful order. P. But few people paid attention to her warnings. Q. Years later, her predictions came true. R. Meera often spoke about the dangers of climate change. S. She urged people to act before it was too late.

    • APQRS
    • BRPSQ
    • CQSRP
    • DRSQP
    • ERSPQ

    Answer: (E) RSPQ

    R introduces Meera, S adds what she urged, P contrasts ('But few paid attention'), and Q ends with what happened years later. Order: RSPQ.

Quant - Partnership (Q41–41)

  1. Q41.Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. A and B start a business with capitals in the ratio 7 : 9. After six months, C joins with twice A's capital. At the end of one year, the total profit is Rs. 92,000. Find the combined profit share of B and C (in Rs.).

    • A60000
    • B64000
    • C48000
    • D56000
    • E46000

    Answer: (B) 64000

    Capital x time: A = 7 x 12 = 84, B = 9 x 12 = 108, C = 14 x 6 = 84, i.e. 7 : 9 : 7 (23 parts). B + C = 16/23 x 92000 = Rs. 64,000.

Quant - Mensuration (Q42–42)

  1. Q42.The area of a rectangle is 216 m² and its length and breadth are in the ratio 3 : 2. The diameter of a circle is 7/6 of the breadth of the rectangle. Find the difference between the areas of the rectangle and the circle (in m²). (Take π = 22/7.)

    • A62
    • B48
    • C60
    • D54
    • E72

    Answer: (A) 62

    6x² = 216, so x = 6: length 18 m, breadth 12 m. Diameter = 7/6 x 12 = 14 m, radius 7 m. Circle = 22/7 x 49 = 154 m². Difference = 216 - 154 = 62 m².

Quant - Quantity Comparison (Q43–44)

  1. Q43.Directions: Compare Quantity I and Quantity II and choose the correct option. a and b are positive integers such that b < 5 < a. Quantity I: 1/a + 1/b Quantity II: (1/b - 1/a)²

    • AQuantity I > Quantity II
    • BQuantity I < Quantity II
    • CQuantity I ≥ Quantity II
    • DQuantity I ≤ Quantity II
    • EQuantity I = Quantity II or no relation

    Answer: (A) Quantity I > Quantity II

    Let u = 1/b and v = 1/a. Since b ≥ 1 and a > b, 0 < v < u ≤ 1. Then Quantity II = (u - v)² < (u - v) x 1 ≤ u - v < u + v = Quantity I (because 0 < u - v < 1). Example: a = 6, b = 3 gives I = 0.5 and II = 1/36. So Quantity I > Quantity II always.

  2. Q44.Directions: Compare Quantity I and Quantity II and choose the correct option. x² - 5x + 6 = 0 and 2y² - 9y + 9 = 0 Quantity I: Product of the larger root of each equation Quantity II: ∛729

    • AQuantity I > Quantity II
    • BQuantity I < Quantity II
    • CQuantity I ≥ Quantity II
    • DQuantity I ≤ Quantity II
    • EQuantity I = Quantity II or no relation

    Answer: (E) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

    x² - 5x + 6 = (x - 2)(x - 3), so x = 2, 3. 2y² - 9y + 9 = (2y - 3)(y - 3), so y = 1.5, 3. Quantity I = 3 x 3 = 9. Quantity II = ∛729 = 9. So Quantity I = Quantity II.

Quant - Wrong Number Series (Q45–47)

  1. Q45.Directions: One term in the number series is wrong. Find the wrong term. 14, 16, 12, 18, 10, 22, 8

    • A14
    • B16
    • C18
    • D22
    • E10

    Answer: (D) 22

    Pattern: +2, -4, +6, -8, +10, -12. 14, 16, 12, 18, 10, 20, 8. The sixth term should be 20, not 22.

  2. Q46.Directions: One term in the number series is wrong. Find the wrong term. 204800, 6400, 400, 50, 12.5, 6.5, 6.25

    • A6.5
    • B204800
    • C6400
    • D400
    • E50

    Answer: (A) 6.5

    Pattern: ÷32, ÷16, ÷8, ÷4, ÷2, ÷1. 12.5 ÷ 2 = 6.25, then 6.25 ÷ 1 = 6.25. So 6.5 is wrong (it should be 6.25).

  3. Q47.Directions: One term in the number series is wrong. Find the wrong term. 19, 23, 32, 48, 73, 109, 154

    • A32
    • B154
    • C109
    • D48
    • E19

    Answer: (B) 154

    Pattern: +2², +3², +4², +5², +6², +7² (i.e. +4, +9, +16, +25, +36, +49). 109 + 49 = 158, so 154 is wrong.

Quant - Mixture and Alligation (Q48–48)

  1. Q48.Vessel A contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. 20 litres of this mixture are poured into vessel B, which already holds x litres of milk and 30 litres of water. The ratio of milk to water in vessel B is now 11 : 7. Find x.

    • A55
    • B35
    • C41
    • D62
    • E40

    Answer: (E) 40

    20 litres from A contain 15 L milk and 5 L water. In B: milk = x + 15, water = 35. (x + 15)/35 = 11/7, so x + 15 = 55 and x = 40.

Quant - Profit and Loss (Q49–49)

  1. Q49.Sneha marks an article 40% above its cost price and allows a discount of 10% on the marked price, making a profit of Rs. 364. Had she sold it at a profit of 25% instead, what would be the difference between the two profits (in Rs.)?

    • A24
    • B16
    • C14
    • D18
    • E20

    Answer: (C) 14

    SP = 1.4 x 0.9 = 1.26 CP, so profit = 0.26 CP = 364 and CP = Rs. 1400. A 25% profit = Rs. 350. Difference = 364 - 350 = Rs. 14.

Quant - Speed, Time and Distance (Q50–50)

  1. Q50.Train A, 300 m long, crosses a 500 m long platform in 30 seconds. Train B is twice as long as train A and runs at 198 km/h. How long (in seconds) will train B take to cross the same platform?

    • A20
    • B40
    • C30
    • D25
    • E15

    Answer: (A) 20

    Train B is 600 m long and its speed is 198 x 5/18 = 55 m/s. To cross the 500 m platform it covers 600 + 500 = 1100 m. Time = 1100/55 = 20 seconds.

Quant - Time and Work (Q51–51)

  1. Q51.A alone can finish a work in 12 days and B alone in 30 days. They work together for 6 days, after which C replaces them and completes 50% of the remaining work. What percentage of the total work is done by C?

    • A5%
    • B25%
    • C20%
    • D10%
    • E15%

    Answer: (E) 15%

    A + B do 1/12 + 1/30 = 7/60 per day, so in 6 days 42/60 = 70% is done. Remaining = 30%. C does half of it = 15% of the total work.

Quant - Ratio and Proportion (Q52–52)

  1. Q52.A bucket has 140 cakes and 80 more are added. All the cakes are then distributed between males and females in the ratio 7 : 4. What is the difference between the number of cakes received by males and females?

    • A80
    • B40
    • C60
    • D90
    • E30

    Answer: (C) 60

    Total = 220 cakes. Difference = (7 - 4)/11 x 220 = 60.

Quant - Pie Chart and Table DI (Q53–58)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The pie chart (given here as text) shows how the total number of goods manufactured (sold + unsold) by four companies A, B, C and D is distributed. Total goods manufactured = 200. A: 35%, B: 15%, C: X%, D: 30% The table shows the percentage of its manufactured goods that each company sold. A: 90% | B: 80% | C: 70% | D: 4X%

    Q53.Find the difference between the average number of goods sold by B and C and the number of unsold goods of D.

    • A8
    • B14
    • C12
    • D10
    • E22

    Answer: (B) 14

    X = 100 - 35 - 15 - 30 = 20. Manufactured: A 70, B 30, C 40, D 60. Sold: A 63, B 24, C 28, D 80% of 60 = 48. Unsold: A 7, B 6, C 12, D 12. Average sold by B and C = (24 + 28)/2 = 26. Unsold by D = 12. Difference = 14.

  2. Q54.Company E manufactures 33⅓% more goods than D, and (X/2)% of E's goods remain unsold. The number of goods sold by E is what percentage of the unsold goods of C?

    • A320%
    • B400%
    • C480%
    • D600%
    • E360%

    Answer: (D) 600%

    X = 100 - 35 - 15 - 30 = 20. Manufactured: A 70, B 30, C 40, D 60. Sold: A 63, B 24, C 28, D 80% of 60 = 48. Unsold: A 7, B 6, C 12, D 12. E = 4/3 x 60 = 80. Unsold = (20/2)% = 10% of 80 = 8, so sold = 72. Unsold of C = 12. 72/12 x 100 = 600%.

  3. Q55.Find the ratio of the unsold goods of B and C together to the goods sold by D.

    • A4:3
    • B3:8
    • C9:4
    • D3:7
    • E3:2

    Answer: (B) 3:8

    X = 100 - 35 - 15 - 30 = 20. Manufactured: A 70, B 30, C 40, D 60. Sold: A 63, B 24, C 28, D 80% of 60 = 48. Unsold: A 7, B 6, C 12, D 12. (6 + 12) : 48 = 18 : 48 = 3 : 8.

  4. Q56.Of the goods sold by A, 53 are defective and the rest are non-defective. The ratio of non-defective goods sold by A to non-defective goods left unsold by A is 2 : 1. Find the number of defective goods left unsold by A.

    • A2
    • B0
    • C8
    • D4
    • E6

    Answer: (A) 2

    X = 100 - 35 - 15 - 30 = 20. Manufactured: A 70, B 30, C 40, D 60. Sold: A 63, B 24, C 28, D 80% of 60 = 48. Unsold: A 7, B 6, C 12, D 12. Non-defective sold = 63 - 53 = 10, so non-defective unsold = 5. A has 7 unsold goods, so defective unsold = 7 - 5 = 2.

  5. Q57.Total goods manufactured by A is what percentage of the goods manufactured by C and D together?

    • A40%
    • B75%
    • C80%
    • D70%
    • E48%

    Answer: (D) 70%

    X = 100 - 35 - 15 - 30 = 20. Manufactured: A 70, B 30, C 40, D 60. Sold: A 63, B 24, C 28, D 80% of 60 = 48. Unsold: A 7, B 6, C 12, D 12. 70/(40 + 60) x 100 = 70%.

  6. Q58.B sells each of its sold goods at Rs. 5 and earns an overall profit of 25% on them. Find the total cost price of the goods sold by B (in Rs.).

    • A80
    • B148
    • C96
    • D106
    • E132

    Answer: (C) 96

    X = 100 - 35 - 15 - 30 = 20. Manufactured: A 70, B 30, C 40, D 60. Sold: A 63, B 24, C 28, D 80% of 60 = 48. Unsold: A 7, B 6, C 12, D 12. Revenue = 24 x 5 = Rs. 120. CP x 125/100 = 120, so CP = Rs. 96.

Quant - Bar Graph DI (Q59–64)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The bar graph (given here as a table) shows the total number of students in four schools and the difference between the number of boys and girls (boys - girls) in each. A: total 72, boys - girls 48 B: total 60, boys - girls 28 C: total 48, boys - girls 12 D: total 52, boys - girls 4

    Q59.Find the average number of girls in schools A, C and D.

    • A14
    • B16
    • C12
    • D10
    • E18

    Answer: (E) 18

    Boys = (total + difference)/2, girls = (total - difference)/2. Boys: A 60, B 44, C 30, D 28. Girls: A 12, B 16, C 18, D 24. (12 + 18 + 24)/3 = 18.

  2. Q60.The total number of girls in A and B together is what percentage more than the number of girls in C?

    • A24.55%
    • B56.55%
    • C52.55%
    • D40.55%
    • E55.56%

    Answer: (E) 55.56%

    Boys = (total + difference)/2, girls = (total - difference)/2. Boys: A 60, B 44, C 30, D 28. Girls: A 12, B 16, C 18, D 24. Girls in A + B = 28; girls in C = 18. (28 - 18)/18 x 100 = 55.56% (approx.).

  3. Q61.If the number of boys in D increases by 25% and the number of girls in D decreases by 50%, find the new total number of students in D.

    • A48
    • B47
    • C46
    • D45
    • E44

    Answer: (B) 47

    Boys = (total + difference)/2, girls = (total - difference)/2. Boys: A 60, B 44, C 30, D 28. Girls: A 12, B 16, C 18, D 24. Boys = 1.25 x 28 = 35; girls = 0.5 x 24 = 12. Total = 47.

  4. Q62.Find the ratio of 50% of the total students in B and C together to the total number of boys in A and D together.

    • A27:44
    • B48:31
    • C31:24
    • D31:36
    • E32:41

    Answer: (A) 27:44

    Boys = (total + difference)/2, girls = (total - difference)/2. Boys: A 60, B 44, C 30, D 28. Girls: A 12, B 16, C 18, D 24. 50% of (60 + 48) = 54. Boys in A + D = 60 + 28 = 88. 54 : 88 = 27 : 44.

  5. Q63.In school E, boys and girls are in the ratio 7 : 9, and the number of boys in E is 50% more than the number of girls in A and B together. Find the number of girls in E.

    • A40
    • B48
    • C54
    • D36
    • E32

    Answer: (C) 54

    Boys = (total + difference)/2, girls = (total - difference)/2. Boys: A 60, B 44, C 30, D 28. Girls: A 12, B 16, C 18, D 24. Boys in E = 1.5 x (12 + 16) = 42. Girls = 42 x 9/7 = 54.

  6. Q64.25% of the students of C are absent, and 10 of the absent students are girls. The number of absent boys in C is how many fewer than the total number of girls in D?

    • A32
    • B40
    • C48
    • D22
    • E36

    Answer: (D) 22

    Boys = (total + difference)/2, girls = (total - difference)/2. Boys: A 60, B 44, C 30, D 28. Girls: A 12, B 16, C 18, D 24. Absent in C = 25% of 48 = 12, so absent boys = 12 - 10 = 2. Girls in D = 24. 24 - 2 = 22.

Quant - Caselet DI (Q65–68)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. The information is about the males and females who visited a museum on three days: Sunday, Monday and Tuesday. A total of 135 people visited on the three days. The number of males who visited on Sunday is 40% of the number of females who visited on Monday. The number of females who visited on Sunday is 5 less than the number who visited on Monday. On Tuesday, 20 males and 40 females visited. The ratio of the total number of visitors on Sunday to that on Tuesday is 1 : 2.

    Q65.Find the total number of females who visited the museum on the three days.

    • A40
    • B85
    • C84
    • D76
    • E62

    Answer: (B) 85

    Tuesday = 60, so Sunday = 30. Let females on Monday = 5k; then males on Sunday = 2k and females on Sunday = 5k - 5. 2k + 5k - 5 = 30, so k = 5. Sunday: 10 males, 20 females. Monday: 25 females and 135 - 30 - 60 - 25 = 20 males (Monday total 45). Tuesday: 20 males, 40 females. Females = 20 + 25 + 40 = 85.

  2. Q66.Find the sum of the number of females who visited on Monday and the number of males who visited on Tuesday.

    • A48
    • B24
    • C45
    • D32
    • E40

    Answer: (C) 45

    Tuesday = 60, so Sunday = 30. Let females on Monday = 5k; then males on Sunday = 2k and females on Sunday = 5k - 5. 2k + 5k - 5 = 30, so k = 5. Sunday: 10 males, 20 females. Monday: 25 females and 135 - 30 - 60 - 25 = 20 males (Monday total 45). Tuesday: 20 males, 40 females. 25 + 20 = 45.

  3. Q67.The entry fee is Rs. 5 for each female and Rs. x for each male. If the museum collected Rs. 220 on Tuesday, find x.

    • A4
    • B3
    • C2
    • D1
    • E5

    Answer: (D) 1

    Tuesday = 60, so Sunday = 30. Let females on Monday = 5k; then males on Sunday = 2k and females on Sunday = 5k - 5. 2k + 5k - 5 = 30, so k = 5. Sunday: 10 males, 20 females. Monday: 25 females and 135 - 30 - 60 - 25 = 20 males (Monday total 45). Tuesday: 20 males, 40 females. 40 x 5 + 20 x x = 220, so 20x = 20 and x = 1.

  4. Q68.Find the ratio of the total number of visitors on Sunday to that on Monday.

    • A2:3
    • B4:1
    • C1:8
    • D2:1
    • E3:2

    Answer: (A) 2:3

    Tuesday = 60, so Sunday = 30. Let females on Monday = 5k; then males on Sunday = 2k and females on Sunday = 5k - 5. 2k + 5k - 5 = 30, so k = 5. Sunday: 10 males, 20 females. Monday: 25 females and 135 - 30 - 60 - 25 = 20 males (Monday total 45). Tuesday: 20 males, 40 females. Sunday 30 : Monday 45 = 2 : 3.

Quant - Average (Q69–69)

  1. Q69.The average weight of 12 students in a class is y kg. Two new students with a total weight of 72 kg join, and the average weight of the class falls by y/16 kg. If the heavier of the two new students weighs (y - 24) kg, find the difference between the weights of the two new students.

    • A6 kg
    • B10 kg
    • C4 kg
    • D12 kg
    • E8 kg

    Answer: (E) 8 kg

    12y + 72 = 14(y - y/16) = 105y/8, so 96y + 576 = 105y and y = 64. Heavier = 64 - 24 = 40 kg, lighter = 72 - 40 = 32 kg. Difference = 8 kg.

Quant - Percentage (Q70–70)

  1. Q70.A's monthly income is Rs. 50,000. He spends x% of it on rent, 20% of the remaining amount on his children's education and half of what is then left on travel. He saves Rs. 18,000. The amount he spends on travel is what percentage more than the amount he spends on rent?

    • A360%
    • B130%
    • C260%
    • D160%
    • E240%

    Answer: (C) 260%

    Let the amount left after rent be R. After education, 0.8R remains; half goes on travel and half (0.4R) is saved. 0.4R = 18000, so R = 45000. Rent = 50000 - 45000 = 5000; travel = 18000. (18000 - 5000)/5000 x 100 = 260%.

Reasoning - Circular Seating Arrangement (Q71–75)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S sit around a circular table. Four of them face the centre and four face away from the centre. Both immediate neighbours of A face away from the centre. Q faces the centre and sits immediately to the left of B. A and B both face the centre and sit opposite each other. Three persons sit between Q and R. C and B are the immediate neighbours of D, who faces away from the centre. C faces away from the centre. S is not an immediate neighbour of A.

    Q71.Who sits immediately to the right of R?

    • AB
    • BP
    • CS
    • DD
    • EC

    Answer: (E) C

    Going clockwise from A: A (facing centre), R (away), C (away), D (away), B (centre), Q (centre), S (centre), P (away). Only this arrangement satisfies every clue. R faces away from the centre, so R's right is the clockwise side: C.

  2. Q72.Who sits between B and S when counted from the left of B?

    • AC
    • BR
    • CP
    • DQ
    • ED

    Answer: (D) Q

    Going clockwise from A: A (facing centre), R (away), C (away), D (away), B (centre), Q (centre), S (centre), P (away). Only this arrangement satisfies every clue. B faces the centre, so B's left is the clockwise side: Q, then S. So Q sits between them.

  3. Q73.What is the position of B with respect to D?

    • ASecond to the right
    • BImmediate right
    • CSecond to the left
    • DImmediate left
    • EThird to the left

    Answer: (B) Immediate right

    Going clockwise from A: A (facing centre), R (away), C (away), D (away), B (centre), Q (centre), S (centre), P (away). Only this arrangement satisfies every clue. D faces away from the centre, so D's right is the clockwise side, where B sits. B is immediately to the right of D.

  4. Q74.Which of the following statements about P is correct?

    • AP sits second to the left of R
    • BP sits second to the right of R
    • CThree persons sit between P and C
    • DOnly two persons sit between P and A
    • EAll of these

    Answer: (A) P sits second to the left of R

    Going clockwise from A: A (facing centre), R (away), C (away), D (away), B (centre), Q (centre), S (centre), P (away). Only this arrangement satisfies every clue. R faces away, so R's left is the anticlockwise side: A (1st), P (2nd). So P is second to the left of R. The others are false: second to the right of R is D; between P and C sit two persons (A and R) one way and five the other; P and A are immediate neighbours.

  5. Q75.Who are the immediate neighbours of A?

    • AC and S
    • BP and R
    • CP and S
    • DR and C
    • ED and P

    Answer: (B) P and R

    Going clockwise from A: A (facing centre), R (away), C (away), D (away), B (centre), Q (centre), S (centre), P (away). Only this arrangement satisfies every clue. A sits between R and P, both of whom face away from the centre.

Reasoning - Letter Pairs (Q76–76)

  1. Q76.How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'PRESENCE' each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (in both forward and backward directions)?

    • ANone
    • BTwo
    • CFour
    • DOne
    • EThree

    Answer: (E) Three

    Checking every pair: P-S (3 apart in the word, P-Q-R-S in the alphabet), R-N (4 apart, N-O-P-Q-R) and E-C (2 apart, C-D-E). So there are three pairs.

Reasoning - Floor Puzzle (Q77–81)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on different floors of a ten-storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on up to the top floor, 10. Four persons live between N and O, and O lives immediately below P. N lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the top floor. Q lives three floors below P. The number of persons living above R is the same as the number living below S, but R and S do not live on adjacent floors. T lives on a floor adjacent to S. U lives on an odd-numbered floor, above V but below M.

    Q77.The number of persons living above V is the same as the number of persons living below whom?

    • AS
    • BM
    • CP
    • DQ
    • EN

    Answer: (C) P

    From top to bottom: 10 P, 9 O, 8 R, 7 Q, 6 M, 5 U, 4 N, 3 S, 2 T, 1 V. This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. Nine persons live above V (floor 1), and nine live below P (floor 10).

  2. Q78.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Who does not belong to the group?

    • AQ
    • BU
    • CS
    • DR
    • EO

    Answer: (D) R

    From top to bottom: 10 P, 9 O, 8 R, 7 Q, 6 M, 5 U, 4 N, 3 S, 2 T, 1 V. This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. O (9), Q (7), U (5) and S (3) live on odd-numbered floors. R lives on floor 8, an even floor.

  3. Q79.How many persons live between T and O?

    • ASix
    • BFour
    • COne
    • DThree
    • ETwo

    Answer: (A) Six

    From top to bottom: 10 P, 9 O, 8 R, 7 Q, 6 M, 5 U, 4 N, 3 S, 2 T, 1 V. This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. T is on floor 2 and O on floor 9, so floors 3 to 8 (six persons) lie between them.

  4. Q80.Who lives immediately above N?

    • ANone of these
    • BU
    • CM
    • DT
    • ES

    Answer: (B) U

    From top to bottom: 10 P, 9 O, 8 R, 7 Q, 6 M, 5 U, 4 N, 3 S, 2 T, 1 V. This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. N is on floor 4 and U is on floor 5.

  5. Q81.Which of the following is incorrect?

    • AS - 2nd floor
    • BM - 6th floor
    • CP - 10th floor
    • DQ - 7th floor
    • EN - 4th floor

    Answer: (A) S - 2nd floor

    From top to bottom: 10 P, 9 O, 8 R, 7 Q, 6 M, 5 U, 4 N, 3 S, 2 T, 1 V. This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. S lives on floor 3; T lives on floor 2. All the other pairs are correct.

Reasoning - Number Operations (Q82–82)

  1. Q82.In the number 45787259, 2 is added to each digit before the 8 and 1 is subtracted from each digit after the 8 (the 8 itself is unchanged). In the new number, how many digits come after the only prime digit?

    • AFour
    • BOne
    • CThree
    • DTwo
    • ESix

    Answer: (E) Six

    Digits before 8: 4, 5, 7 become 6, 7, 9. Digits after 8: 7, 2, 5, 9 become 6, 1, 4, 8. New number: 6 7 9 8 6 1 4 8. The only prime digit is 7 (second place), and six digits come after it.

Reasoning - Comparison (Q83–85)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are of different heights. A is the second tallest. Two persons are between A and B in height order. C is just taller than D but shorter than E. The second tallest person is 177 cm tall.

    Q83.Who is the fourth tallest person?

    • AE
    • BC
    • CD
    • DB
    • EF

    Answer: (C) D

    From tallest to shortest: E, A, C, D, B, F. A is 2nd, so B is 5th (two persons between). C and D must take places 3 and 4, with E above C, so E is tallest and F shortest. Fourth tallest: D.

  2. Q84.If the heights of A and D add up to 300 cm and B is 114 cm tall, what is the sum of the heights of B and D?

    • A192 cm
    • B263 cm
    • C260 cm
    • D237 cm
    • ENone of these

    Answer: (D) 237 cm

    From tallest to shortest: E, A, C, D, B, F. A is 2nd, so B is 5th (two persons between). C and D must take places 3 and 4, with E above C, so E is tallest and F shortest. A = 177 cm, so D = 300 - 177 = 123 cm. B + D = 114 + 123 = 237 cm (consistent: D is taller than B).

  3. Q85.Who is the shortest person?

    • AC
    • BD
    • CB
    • DF
    • EE

    Answer: (D) F

    From tallest to shortest: E, A, C, D, B, F. A is 2nd, so B is 5th (two persons between). C and D must take places 3 and 4, with E above C, so E is tallest and F shortest. Shortest: F.

Reasoning - Designation Puzzle (Q86–90)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W hold eight different designations in an organisation. In increasing order of seniority, the designations are: Clerk, Officer, Manager, Senior Manager, AGM, DGM, GM and CGM (Clerk is the most junior and CGM the most senior). Each person also likes a different colour: Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, White, Pink and Silver. At most two persons are junior to T. Two persons are between T and the one who likes Blue. Q is three posts senior to the one who likes Blue. Four persons are between Q and the one who likes Orange. R is junior to the AGM and likes neither Blue nor Red. P is just junior to R but senior to the one who likes Green. The number of persons junior to P is the same as the number senior to the one who likes White. V is not the CGM but is senior to the one who likes White. The one who likes Silver is three posts junior to U. S is just junior to the one who likes Yellow.

    Q86.What is the designation of S?

    • AClerk
    • BManager
    • CDGM
    • DAGM
    • ESenior Manager

    Answer: (C) DGM

    From junior to senior: Clerk - W (Green), Officer - T (Silver), Manager - P (Orange), Senior Manager - R (Pink), AGM - U (Blue), DGM - S (White), GM - V (Yellow), CGM - Q (Red). Only this arrangement fits all the clues. S is the DGM.

  2. Q87.Which colour does the Senior Manager like?

    • APink
    • BOrange
    • CSilver
    • DYellow
    • EBlue

    Answer: (A) Pink

    From junior to senior: Clerk - W (Green), Officer - T (Silver), Manager - P (Orange), Senior Manager - R (Pink), AGM - U (Blue), DGM - S (White), GM - V (Yellow), CGM - Q (Red). Only this arrangement fits all the clues. The Senior Manager is R, who likes Pink.

  3. Q88.U is the ____ and likes ____.

    • ADGM, White
    • BAGM, Blue
    • CGM, Yellow
    • DSenior Manager, Pink
    • ECGM, Red

    Answer: (B) AGM, Blue

    From junior to senior: Clerk - W (Green), Officer - T (Silver), Manager - P (Orange), Senior Manager - R (Pink), AGM - U (Blue), DGM - S (White), GM - V (Yellow), CGM - Q (Red). Only this arrangement fits all the clues. U is the AGM and likes Blue.

  4. Q89.Who likes Silver?

    • AP
    • BThe Clerk
    • CThe one who is two posts junior to S
    • DS
    • EThe one who is just senior to W

    Answer: (E) The one who is just senior to W

    From junior to senior: Clerk - W (Green), Officer - T (Silver), Manager - P (Orange), Senior Manager - R (Pink), AGM - U (Blue), DGM - S (White), GM - V (Yellow), CGM - Q (Red). Only this arrangement fits all the clues. T likes Silver. T (Officer) is just senior to W (Clerk). The Clerk is W, and two posts junior to S is R.

  5. Q90.Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. R is not junior to W. II. S is junior to the GM. III. W does not like Green.

    • AOnly II
    • BOnly I
    • COnly I and II
    • DOnly II and III
    • ENone is correct

    Answer: (C) Only I and II

    From junior to senior: Clerk - W (Green), Officer - T (Silver), Manager - P (Orange), Senior Manager - R (Pink), AGM - U (Blue), DGM - S (White), GM - V (Yellow), CGM - Q (Red). Only this arrangement fits all the clues. I: R (Senior Manager) is senior to W (Clerk), so true. II: S is the DGM, just junior to the GM (V), so true. III: W likes Green, so false. Only I and II.

Reasoning - Order Puzzle (Q91–95)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Nine persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S purchase products one after another. Either four or five persons purchase after K. Three persons purchase between K and L. M purchases just after L. The number of persons who purchase before M is the same as the number who purchase after N. O purchases between N and K. Q purchases just after P but before O. R purchases before S but after O.

    Q91.How many persons purchase between R and L?

    • AMore than four
    • BOne
    • CTwo
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (A) More than four

    Order of purchase: 1 L, 2 M, 3 P, 4 Q, 5 K, 6 O, 7 R, 8 N, 9 S. (If K were 4th, L would have to be 8th with M 9th, leaving no room for the other clues, so K is 5th and L 1st.) L is 1st and R 7th, so five persons purchase between them.

  2. Q92.Who purchases fourth after M?

    • AK
    • BS
    • CO
    • DR
    • EP

    Answer: (C) O

    Order of purchase: 1 L, 2 M, 3 P, 4 Q, 5 K, 6 O, 7 R, 8 N, 9 S. (If K were 4th, L would have to be 8th with M 9th, leaving no room for the other clues, so K is 5th and L 1st.) M is 2nd, so fourth after M is the 6th person, O.

  3. Q93.Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which pair does not belong to the group?

    • AM-P
    • BL-Q
    • CN-S
    • DO-R
    • EQ-K

    Answer: (B) L-Q

    Order of purchase: 1 L, 2 M, 3 P, 4 Q, 5 K, 6 O, 7 R, 8 N, 9 S. (If K were 4th, L would have to be 8th with M 9th, leaving no room for the other clues, so K is 5th and L 1st.) N-S (8, 9), O-R (6, 7), Q-K (4, 5) and M-P (2, 3) purchase one after the other. L (1) and Q (4) do not.

  4. Q94.Who is the second last person to purchase?

    • AR
    • BO
    • CL
    • DN
    • ES

    Answer: (D) N

    Order of purchase: 1 L, 2 M, 3 P, 4 Q, 5 K, 6 O, 7 R, 8 N, 9 S. (If K were 4th, L would have to be 8th with M 9th, leaving no room for the other clues, so K is 5th and L 1st.) The 8th person is N.

  5. Q95.Who purchases exactly midway between S and K?

    • AQ
    • BP
    • CN
    • DM
    • ER

    Answer: (E) R

    Order of purchase: 1 L, 2 M, 3 P, 4 Q, 5 K, 6 O, 7 R, 8 N, 9 S. (If K were 4th, L would have to be 8th with M 9th, leaving no room for the other clues, so K is 5th and L 1st.) K is 5th and S 9th; the 7th person, R, is exactly midway.

Reasoning - Linear Seating Arrangement (Q96–100)

  1. Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 2). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in a row facing north. Each has a different element: Copper, Nickel, Gold, Mercury, Aluminium, Silver and Iron. The one who has Gold sits third to the left of D, and neither of them sits at an extreme end. E sits immediately to the right of the one who has Gold. B and E sit next to each other. The one who has Iron sits second to the left of B. Two persons sit between G and F. The one who has Mercury sits fourth to the right of G. The one who has Copper sits immediately to the right of the one who has Silver. The one who has Nickel sits to the left of F and to the right of A.

    Q96.Which element does C have?

    • AMercury
    • BNickel
    • CCopper
    • DSilver
    • EAluminium

    Answer: (E) Aluminium

    From left to right: A (Iron), G (Nickel), B (Gold), E (Silver), F (Copper), D (Mercury), C (Aluminium). This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. C has Aluminium.

  2. Q97.Who has Silver?

    • AE
    • BC
    • CA
    • DB
    • ED

    Answer: (A) E

    From left to right: A (Iron), G (Nickel), B (Gold), E (Silver), F (Copper), D (Mercury), C (Aluminium). This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. E has Silver.

  3. Q98.What is the position of G with respect to A?

    • AThird to the left
    • BImmediate right
    • CImmediate left
    • DThird to the right
    • ESecond to the right

    Answer: (B) Immediate right

    From left to right: A (Iron), G (Nickel), B (Gold), E (Silver), F (Copper), D (Mercury), C (Aluminium). This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. G sits next to A on A's right.

  4. Q99.How many persons sit to the left of the one who has Copper?

    • ATwo
    • BThree
    • CFour
    • DFive
    • ENone of the above

    Answer: (C) Four

    From left to right: A (Iron), G (Nickel), B (Gold), E (Silver), F (Copper), D (Mercury), C (Aluminium). This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. F has Copper and sits fifth from the left, so four persons (A, G, B, E) sit to the left.

  5. Q100.Which of the following combinations is correct?

    • AC - Mercury
    • BG - Gold
    • CA - Nickel
    • DE - Silver
    • ED - Copper

    Answer: (D) E - Silver

    From left to right: A (Iron), G (Nickel), B (Gold), E (Silver), F (Copper), D (Mercury), C (Aluminium). This is the only arrangement that fits all the clues. E has Silver. A has Iron, D Mercury, C Aluminium and G Nickel.

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