SBI PO 2025 Prelims Memory-Based Paper 4 August Shift 1 with Answers
- Exam date
- 4 August 2025
- Shift
- Shift 1
- Source
- Memory-based (candidate recall)
SBI does not publish question papers or answer keys. These papers are rebuilt from candidates' recall of the shift, written fresh and fully re-checked.
Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.
English - Cloze Test (Q1–6)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: In the passage below, each blank is marked with a letter. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately. Learning to control fire was among the most ____ (A) advances in human history. Researchers believe early humans first ____ (B) fires that had started naturally, from lightning strikes or volcanic activity, long before they could make their own. Over thousands of years, this chance contact led to the ____ (C) of methods for lighting flames and keeping them alive. Early people must have watched wildfires ____ (D) the land around them, an experience that both frightened and fascinated them. Using fire on purpose for warmth and protection was a ____ (E) step in human development. Gradually, our ancestors found better ways to ____ (F) this powerful force, and in doing so they changed the course of civilisation.
Q1.Which word fits blank (A)?
- Anegligible
- Bredundant
- Cmarginal
- Dtrivial
- Emomentous
Answer: (E) momentous
The sentence calls fire control one of the most important advances in history, so a word meaning 'very significant' is needed: momentous. Trivial, negligible and marginal mean unimportant, and redundant means unnecessary.
Q2.Which word fits blank (B)?
- Asquandered
- Bcircumvented
- Cabolished
- Dextinguished
- Eharnessed
Answer: (E) harnessed
Before they could make fire, early humans made use of naturally started fires, i.e. they harnessed them. Extinguished (put out), squandered (wasted), circumvented (avoided) and abolished do not fit the idea of early use.
Q3.Which word fits blank (C)?
- Adevelopment
- Bprohibition
- Ccessation
- Ddissolution
- Erevocation
Answer: (A) development
Chance contact with fire led to the creation of methods for lighting and keeping flames: the development of methods. The other words mean ending, cancelling or banning something.
Q4.Which word fits blank (D)?
- Apacify
- Btransform
- Cdecorate
- Dstabilise
- Eirrigate
Answer: (B) transform
Wildfires change the landscape dramatically, which is why the sight both frightened and fascinated people: they watched fires transform the land. Pacify, stabilise, decorate and irrigate describe calming or improving the land, which does not explain the fear.
Q5.Which word fits blank (E)?
- Anominal
- Bsporadic
- Cperfunctory
- Darbitrary
- Epivotal
Answer: (E) pivotal
Deliberate use of fire was a turning point in human development, so pivotal (crucial) fits. Perfunctory (careless), arbitrary (random), nominal (small) and sporadic (occasional) do not.
Q6.Which word fits blank (F)?
- Arelinquish
- Bcontaminate
- Cdismantle
- Dmaster
- Eforfeit
Answer: (D) master
Finding better ways to control fire is what changed civilisation, so our ancestors learned to master it. Relinquish and forfeit mean give up, contaminate means pollute and dismantle means take apart.
English - Error Spotting (Q7–11)
Q7.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Neither the coach nor the players (A)/ was informed about (B)/ the change in the (C)/ match schedule. (D)
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
- ENo error
Answer: (B) B
With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. The nearer subject 'the players' is plural, so part (B) should read 'were informed about'.
Q8.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Had he left home (A)/ a little earlier, he (B)/ will have caught (C)/ the morning train. (D)
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
- ENo error
Answer: (C) C
'Had he left' is a past (third) conditional, which takes 'would have + past participle' in the main clause. Part (C) should be 'would have caught'.
Q9.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The clerk had already (A)/ closed the counter (B)/ before the customer (C)/ reach the bank. (D)
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
- ENo error
Answer: (D) D
The earlier action is in the past perfect ('had closed'), so the later action needs the simple past. Part (D) should be 'reached the bank'.
Q10.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Not only he apologised (A)/ for the delay but (B)/ also offered to (C)/ pay for the damage. (D)
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
- ENo error
Answer: (A) A
When a sentence begins with 'Not only', the subject and auxiliary are inverted. Part (A) should be 'Not only did he apologise'.
Q11.Directions: The sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The committee has decided (A)/ to postpone the annual (B)/ meeting until all the members (C)/ return from the tour. (D)
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
- ENo error
Answer: (E) No error
'The committee' acting as one body takes the singular 'has decided'; 'to postpone' is the correct infinitive; 'until all the members return' correctly uses the present tense for a future event. The sentence has no error.
English - Sentence Improvement (Q12–14)
Q12.Directions: Choose the option that best replaces the part in single quotes. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. It is necessary that every applicant 'submits the form before Friday'.
- Asubmitted the form before Friday
- Bsubmit the form before Friday
- Cshould submitting the form before Friday
- Dhas submitted the form before Friday
- ENo replacement required
Answer: (B) submit the form before Friday
After 'It is necessary/essential that...', English uses the subjunctive: the base form of the verb, whatever the subject. So 'every applicant submit the form' is correct.
Q13.Directions: Choose the option that best replaces the part in single quotes. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. The thief narrowly 'escaped to be caught' by the police at the station.
- Aescaped being caught
- Bescaped to being caught
- Cescaped to have been caught
- Descaped having caught
- ENo replacement required
Answer: (A) escaped being caught
'Escape' is followed by a gerund, and here the passive gerund is needed: 'escaped being caught'. The infinitive 'to be caught' is wrong after 'escape'.
Q14.Directions: Choose the option that best replaces the part in single quotes. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. After a long debate, the members finally 'came round the proposal'.
- Acame across the proposal
- Bcame about the proposal
- Ccame upon the proposal
- Dcame round to the proposal
- ENo replacement required
Answer: (D) came round to the proposal
The phrasal verb meaning 'to change one's opinion and accept something' is 'come round to'. 'Came across/upon' means found by chance and 'came about' means happened.
English - Reading Comprehension (Q15–22)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions. A nation's strength is judged not only by how much it produces but by how stable, resilient and healthy its people are. Growth draws on many sources, such as natural resources, roads and ports, and the quality of governance, but the most decisive of these is investment in human capital. Countries that put education and health care first lay the groundwork for prosperity that lasts. One glaring lesson of the modern global economy is that riches in the ground do not guarantee lasting growth. Nations blessed with oil or minerals may enjoy sudden surges in revenue, yet without sound institutions and a skilled, healthy workforce those gains are easily lost. Education gives people the skills to innovate, adapt and compete. Health care, in turn, keeps citizens productive over a working lifetime, cutting absenteeism and easing the economic burden of disease. Some resource-dependent countries have therefore tried to diversify by ________ their export earnings into schools, training institutes, hospitals and public health programmes. Angola, long reliant on oil exports, has in recent years spent more on education and health in an effort to reduce that dependence. By building up its human capital, it hopes to raise productivity and attract investment into sectors other than oil. Problems remain, but such steps show how a temporary windfall can be turned into durable national strength. The wider economic climate, however, is unpredictable. Trade disruptions, swings in commodity prices and geopolitical tensions can stall even the most ambitious development plans. In a grim scenario, an external shock forces a government to slash essential public spending, wiping out years of progress in schools and clinics. How well a country withstands such shocks depends largely on how diversified its economy is and how carefully it plans its finances. National strength, then, cannot be built overnight. It calls for consistent policies, transparent governance and the foresight to balance today's needs against tomorrow's goals. A population that is educated, healthy and able to innovate is a nation's best insurance against global uncertainty. Investment in people is not merely a moral duty; it is a sound economic strategy for rich and poor countries alike.
Q15.According to the passage, what is the main limitation of relying only on natural resource wealth?
- AIt makes governance reforms unnecessary.
- BIt always causes a steady rise in global commodity prices.
- CIt brings sudden revenue but does not by itself build the institutions and skilled workforce needed for lasting growth.
- DIt forces governments to spend too much on education and too little on industry.
- EIt discourages countries from trading with their neighbours.
Answer: (C) It brings sudden revenue but does not by itself build the institutions and skilled workforce needed for lasting growth.
Paragraph 2: resource-rich nations 'may enjoy sudden surges in revenue, yet without sound institutions and a skilled, healthy workforce those gains are easily lost'. None of the other claims is made.
Q16.According to the passage, what is a key benefit of investing in health care?
- AIt raises exports of medical goods.
- BIt keeps people productive for longer by cutting absenteeism and the economic burden of disease.
- CIt allows governments to spend less on education.
- DIt improves a country’s diplomatic ties.
- EIt reduces the size of the population.
Answer: (B) It keeps people productive for longer by cutting absenteeism and the economic burden of disease.
Paragraph 2 says health care 'keeps citizens productive over a working lifetime, cutting absenteeism and easing the economic burden of disease'.
Q17.Which of the following is NOT presented in the passage as a source of national strength? (A) Investment in education and health care (B) Transparent governance and consistent policies (C) Heavy dependence on a single export commodity
- AOnly A
- BOnly B
- COnly C
- DBoth A and B
- EAll A, B and C
Answer: (C) Only C
The passage praises investment in people (A) and calls for 'consistent policies, transparent governance' (B). Dependence on a single export such as oil (C) is described as a weakness that countries like Angola are trying to reduce. So only C is not a source of strength.
Q18.Which of the following statements is/are true according to the passage? (A) Angola has spent more on education and health to reduce its dependence on oil. (B) The author argues that global uncertainty makes spending on people unwise. (C) The author presents investment in people as both a moral duty and an economic strategy.
- AOnly A
- BOnly B
- CBoth A and C
- DBoth B and C
- EAll A, B and C
Answer: (C) Both A and C
A is stated in paragraph 3. C matches the last sentence ('not merely a moral duty; it is a sound economic strategy'). B is the opposite of the author's view: an educated, healthy population is called the best insurance against uncertainty.
Q19.Choose the word most similar in meaning to 'glaring' as used in the passage.
- Asubtle
- Btrivial
- Cmoderate
- Dobvious
- Ehidden
Answer: (D) obvious
A 'glaring lesson' is one that is impossible to miss, i.e. obvious. Hidden and subtle are opposites; trivial and moderate do not fit.
Q20.Choose the word most similar in meaning to 'stall' as used in the passage.
- Ahalt
- Bpromote
- Caccelerate
- Dfinalise
- Eguarantee
Answer: (A) halt
Shocks can 'stall' development plans, i.e. stop or halt their progress. Promote, accelerate, finalise and guarantee all suggest progress.
Q21.Which word best fills the blank in the third paragraph ('tried to diversify by ________ their export earnings into schools...')?
- Aconcealing
- Bexhausting
- Csquandering
- Dhoarding
- Echannelling
Answer: (E) channelling
The countries are directing their earnings into schools and hospitals, so 'channelling' fits. Hoarding (storing up), concealing, exhausting and squandering (wasting) contradict the sense of investing.
Q22.Choose the word most opposite in meaning to 'grim' as used in the passage.
- Aserious
- Bharsh
- Cbleak
- Dgloomy
- Echeerful
Answer: (E) cheerful
'Grim' means bleak or depressing. Its opposite is cheerful. Harsh, bleak, gloomy and serious are close in meaning to grim.
English - Fillers (Q23–25)
Q23.Directions: Choose the pair of words that fills both blanks most appropriately. Despite the ____ weather, the rescue team managed to ____ all the stranded hikers.
- Asevere, evacuate
- Bmild, desert
- Charsh, endanger
- Dcalm, ignore
- Epleasant, abandon
Answer: (A) severe, evacuate
'Despite' signals a contrast: in spite of bad (severe) weather the team succeeded in getting the hikers out (evacuate). The other pairs give no contrast or describe a failure.
Q24.Directions: Choose the pair of words that fills both blanks most appropriately. The old author's essays, though written a century ago, still ____ relevance today and continue to ____ young readers.
- Alack, bore
- Bretain, inspire
- Close, attract
- Ddeny, motivate
- Eseek, repel
Answer: (B) retain, inspire
'Though written a century ago, still...' needs a positive verb: the essays retain (keep) relevance and continue to inspire readers. 'Lack', 'lose', 'deny' and 'seek' do not fit with 'still ... relevance'.
Q25.Directions: Choose the pair of words that fills both blanks most appropriately. Since the evidence was ____, the court had no choice but to ____ the accused.
- Astrong, free
- Bmissing, sentence
- Cinsufficient, acquit
- Dconclusive, release
- Eweak, convict
Answer: (C) insufficient, acquit
Without enough evidence a court must set the accused free, so 'insufficient, acquit' is the only logical pair. Conclusive or strong evidence would lead to conviction, and weak or missing evidence cannot force a conviction or sentence.
English - Sentence Rearrangement (Q26–28)
Q26.Directions: The parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Choose the order that makes a correct and meaningful sentence. If the given order is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. (A) for improving (B) road safety (C) announced a new scheme (D) the transport minister
- ABADC
- BDABC
- CDCAB
- DBCAD
- ENo rearrangement required
Answer: (C) DCAB
DCAB: The transport minister (D) announced a new scheme (C) for improving (A) road safety (B).
Q27.Directions: The parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Choose the order that makes a correct and meaningful sentence. If the given order is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. (A) levels in the river (B) on reducing pollution (C) the new rules had (D) a visible effect
- AADBC
- BACBD
- CBDAC
- DCDBA
- ENo rearrangement required
Answer: (D) CDBA
CDBA: The new rules had (C) a visible effect (D) on reducing pollution (B) levels in the river (A).
Q28.Directions: The parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Choose the order that makes a correct and meaningful sentence. If the given order is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. (A) the interviewer's question (B) honest answers (C) was meant to draw out (D) from the candidates
- AADBC
- BACBD
- CBDAC
- DCDBA
- ENo rearrangement required
Answer: (B) ACBD
ACBD: The interviewer's question (A) was meant to draw out (C) honest answers (B) from the candidates (D).
English - Para Jumbles (Q29–33)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Rearrange the six sentences (A) to (F) to form a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions. (A) Orange juice faced a different set of troubles, as groves in Florida and Brazil struggled with citrus greening disease and hurricane damage. (B) Coffee prices, for instance, have begun to steady as fresh harvests approach, while orange juice supply remains held back by the slow recovery of diseased trees. (C) Over the past year, the global prices of two breakfast staples, coffee and orange juice, have climbed sharply because of weather-related shocks. (D) This contrast shows how different farm risks can push the prices of two commodities along very different paths. (E) Thus, although both drinks suffered supply shocks, the nature of the damage and the pace of recovery have differed. (F) In Brazil, the largest coffee grower, a long drought followed by unexpected frost shrank the harvest and pushed coffee prices up.
Q29.Which sentence comes FIRST after rearrangement?
- AE
- BA
- CB
- DC
- ED
Answer: (D) C
Correct order: C-F-A-E-B-D. C introduces both price rises; F explains coffee; A (‘a different set of troubles’) turns to orange juice; E draws the comparison; B (‘for instance’) illustrates the different recovery; D concludes with ‘this contrast’. First: C.
Q30.Which sentence comes SECOND after rearrangement?
- AD
- BB
- CE
- DF
- EA
Answer: (D) F
Correct order: C-F-A-E-B-D. C introduces both price rises; F explains coffee; A (‘a different set of troubles’) turns to orange juice; E draws the comparison; B (‘for instance’) illustrates the different recovery; D concludes with ‘this contrast’. Second: F.
Q31.Which sentence comes THIRD after rearrangement?
- AF
- BE
- CA
- DD
- EC
Answer: (C) A
Correct order: C-F-A-E-B-D. C introduces both price rises; F explains coffee; A (‘a different set of troubles’) turns to orange juice; E draws the comparison; B (‘for instance’) illustrates the different recovery; D concludes with ‘this contrast’. Third: A.
Q32.Which sentence comes FIFTH after rearrangement?
- AC
- BD
- CE
- DA
- EB
Answer: (E) B
Correct order: C-F-A-E-B-D. C introduces both price rises; F explains coffee; A (‘a different set of troubles’) turns to orange juice; E draws the comparison; B (‘for instance’) illustrates the different recovery; D concludes with ‘this contrast’. Fifth: B.
Q33.Which sentence comes LAST (SIXTH) after rearrangement?
- AE
- BD
- CA
- DC
- EB
Answer: (B) D
Correct order: C-F-A-E-B-D. C introduces both price rises; F explains coffee; A (‘a different set of troubles’) turns to orange juice; E draws the comparison; B (‘for instance’) illustrates the different recovery; D concludes with ‘this contrast’. Last: D.
English - Word Swap (Q34–36)
Q34.Directions: Three words in the sentence are marked (A), (B) and (C). They may be in the wrong places. Choose the order in which the marked words should appear (first, second, third) to make the sentence correct. If no change is needed, choose 'No rearrangement required'. The rainfall (A) was delayed by heavy flight (B) at the city airport (C).
- ABAC
- BCAB
- CACB
- DCBA
- ENo rearrangement required
Answer: (A) BAC
Correct sentence: 'The flight was delayed by heavy rainfall at the city airport.' The marked words should appear as flight (B), rainfall (A), airport (C): BAC.
Q35.Directions: Three words in the sentence are marked (A), (B) and (C). They may be in the wrong places. Choose the order in which the marked words should appear (first, second, third) to make the sentence correct. If no change is needed, choose 'No rearrangement required'. The crops (A) praised the new policy (B) for raising the price of their farmers (C).
- ABAC
- BCAB
- CACB
- DCBA
- ENo rearrangement required
Answer: (D) CBA
Correct sentence: 'The farmers praised the new policy for raising the price of their crops.' Order of marked words: farmers (C), policy (B), crops (A): CBA.
Q36.Directions: Three words in the sentence are marked (A), (B) and (C). They may be in the wrong places. Choose the order in which the marked words should appear (first, second, third) to make the sentence correct. If no change is needed, choose 'No rearrangement required'. The engineer (A) inspected the bridge (B) before the monsoon (C) arrived.
- ABAC
- BCAB
- CACB
- DCBA
- ENo rearrangement required
Answer: (E) No rearrangement required
The sentence already makes sense: an engineer inspects a bridge before the monsoon arrives. No rearrangement is required.
English - Match the Column (Q37–38)
Q37.Directions: Column I has three sentence openings (A, B, C) and Column II has three endings (P, Q, R). Choose the option that gives the correct and meaningful sentence(s). If none is correct, choose 'None of these'. Column I: (A) Besides finishing the report on time, | (B) The village is fairly prosperous in comparison | (C) Having missed the last bus, Column II: (P) she also prepared the slides for the meeting. | (Q) with the drought-hit districts nearby. | (R) we had to walk home in the rain.
- AOnly A-P
- BBoth B-Q and C-R
- CA-P, B-Q and C-R
- DBoth A-R and C-P
- ENone of these
Answer: (C) A-P, B-Q and C-R
A-P: 'Besides finishing the report on time, she also prepared the slides' (besides ... also). B-Q: 'prosperous in comparison with the drought-hit districts'. C-R: 'Having missed the last bus, we had to walk home'. All three pairs work, so A-P, B-Q and C-R.
Q38.Directions: Column I has three sentence openings (A, B, C) and Column II has three endings (P, Q, R). Choose the option that gives the correct and meaningful sentence(s). If none is correct, choose 'None of these'. Column I: (A) The manager insisted that | (B) No sooner had the match begun | (C) The scientist, along with her assistants, Column II: (P) than it started to rain. | (Q) every employee attend the training. | (R) were awarded for the discovery.
- ABoth A-Q and B-P
- BOnly C-R
- CA-Q, B-P and C-R
- DBoth A-P and B-Q
- ENone of these
Answer: (A) Both A-Q and B-P
A-Q is correct ('insisted that every employee attend' uses the subjunctive). B-P is correct ('No sooner had ... than'). C-R is wrong: with 'along with', the verb agrees with 'The scientist', so it should be 'was awarded'. Answer: A-Q and B-P.
English - Word Usage (Q39–40)
Q39.Directions: A word is given in capitals and used in three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) in which the word is used correctly. COUNSEL (A) Before signing the lease, she sought legal counsel to protect her interests. (B) The town counsel met for four hours to discuss the new parking rules. (C) Doctors counsel patients with high blood pressure to cut down on salt.
- AOnly A
- BOnly B
- CBoth A and B
- DBoth A and C
- EAll of these
Answer: (D) Both A and C
Counsel means advice (noun) or to advise (verb), so A and C are correct. In B the word needed is 'council' (an elected body).
Q40.Directions: A word is given in capitals and used in three sentences. Choose the sentence(s) in which the word is used correctly. GAIT (I) The vet watched the horse's gait closely to detect any lameness. (II) The guard opened the main gait to let the school bus in. (III) The old garden gait creaked every time the wind blew.
- AOnly I
- BOnly II
- CBoth I and II
- DBoth II and III
- EAll of these
Answer: (A) Only I
Gait means a manner of walking, so I is correct. In II and III the word needed is 'gate' (an opening in a wall or fence).
Quant - Pie Chart DI (Q41–45)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The pie chart (given here as text) shows how the total population of five cities A, B, C, D and E is distributed. Total population of the five cities = 1200. City A: (2p + 5)% | City B: 8% | City C: p% | City D: 15% | City E: 12%
Q41.City F has 50% more males than the total population of city D, and its female population is 20% less than the average population of cities B and E. The total population of F is what percent of the population of C?
- A152.5%
- B118.5%
- C122.5%
- D134.5%
- E142.5%
Answer: (A) 152.5%
First find p: (2p + 5) + 8 + p + 15 + 12 = 100, so 3p = 60 and p = 20. Populations: A = 45% of 1200 = 540, B = 96, C = 20% = 240, D = 180, E = 144. Males in F = 1.5 x 180 = 270. Average of B and E = (96 + 144)/2 = 120, so females = 0.8 x 120 = 96. F = 366. 366/240 x 100 = 152.5%.
Q42.What is the difference between the combined population of cities B and C and the population of city E?
- A290
- B119
- C120
- D192
- E129
Answer: (D) 192
First find p: (2p + 5) + 8 + p + 15 + 12 = 100, so 3p = 60 and p = 20. Populations: A = 45% of 1200 = 540, B = 96, C = 20% = 240, D = 180, E = 144. B + C = 96 + 240 = 336. 336 - 144 = 192.
Q43.In city C, the ratio of men to women is 2 : 5, and the number of children equals the number of women. What is the ratio of children in C to the total population of E?
- A36:11
- B21:19
- C22:21
- D23:36
- E25:36
Answer: (E) 25:36
First find p: (2p + 5) + 8 + p + 15 + 12 = 100, so 3p = 60 and p = 20. Populations: A = 45% of 1200 = 540, B = 96, C = 20% = 240, D = 180, E = 144. Men : women : children in C = 2 : 5 : 5 (12 parts) = 240, so one part = 20 and children = 100. Children : population of E = 100 : 144 = 25 : 36.
Q44.The combined population of cities D and E is approximately what percent less than the combined population of cities A and C?
- A42.29%
- B53.20%
- C58.46%
- D52.22%
- E54.30%
Answer: (C) 58.46%
First find p: (2p + 5) + 8 + p + 15 + 12 = 100, so 3p = 60 and p = 20. Populations: A = 45% of 1200 = 540, B = 96, C = 20% = 240, D = 180, E = 144. D + E = 180 + 144 = 324. A + C = 540 + 240 = 780. (780 - 324)/780 x 100 = 456/780 x 100 = 58.46% less.
Q45.Females make up 35% of the total population of the five cities, and 55% of the population of city D. The total number of females in all the cities except D is how many more or less than the population of city A?
- A200 less
- B219 less
- C220 more
- D230 less
- E229 more
Answer: (B) 219 less
First find p: (2p + 5) + 8 + p + 15 + 12 = 100, so 3p = 60 and p = 20. Populations: A = 45% of 1200 = 540, B = 96, C = 20% = 240, D = 180, E = 144. Total females = 35% of 1200 = 420. Females in D = 55% of 180 = 99. Females outside D = 420 - 99 = 321. Population of A = 540, so this is 540 - 321 = 219 less.
Quant - Caselet DI (Q46–50)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Read the information and answer the questions. A survey of 100 people asked which of three drinks they like: tea, coffee and milk. Everyone likes at least one drink. The ratio of people who like only tea to those who like only coffee is 5 : 3. The number who like only milk equals the number who like tea and coffee but not milk. 16 people like all three drinks. The number who like milk and tea but not coffee is 30% more than the number who like coffee and milk but not tea. 20 people like coffee and milk but not tea, which is twice the number who like only tea.
Q46.How many people like exactly one of the three drinks?
- A27
- B22
- C21
- D25
- E20
Answer: (A) 27
Only tea = 20/2 = 10, so only coffee = 10 x 3/5 = 6. Milk and tea only = 1.3 x 20 = 26. Let only milk = tea and coffee only = x: 10 + 6 + x + x + 26 + 20 + 16 = 100, so x = 11. Exactly one drink = 10 + 6 + 11 = 27.
Q47.The number of people who like both coffee and milk (including those who like all three) is what percent of the number who like all three drinks?
- A250%
- B200%
- C225%
- D240%
- E175%
Answer: (C) 225%
Only tea = 20/2 = 10, so only coffee = 10 x 3/5 = 6. Milk and tea only = 1.3 x 20 = 26. Let only milk = tea and coffee only = x: 10 + 6 + x + x + 26 + 20 + 16 = 100, so x = 11. Coffee and milk = 20 + 16 = 36. 36/16 x 100 = 225%.
Q48.What is the ratio of the number of people who like exactly two drinks to the number who like only coffee?
- A10:7
- B14:11
- C7:10
- D2:19
- E19:2
Answer: (E) 19:2
Only tea = 20/2 = 10, so only coffee = 10 x 3/5 = 6. Milk and tea only = 1.3 x 20 = 26. Let only milk = tea and coffee only = x: 10 + 6 + x + x + 26 + 20 + 16 = 100, so x = 11. Exactly two = 11 + 26 + 20 = 57. Only coffee = 6. 57 : 6 = 19 : 2.
Q49.What is the difference between the total number of people who like milk and the total number who like tea?
- A10
- B14
- C12
- D21
- E15
Answer: (A) 10
Only tea = 20/2 = 10, so only coffee = 10 x 3/5 = 6. Milk and tea only = 1.3 x 20 = 26. Let only milk = tea and coffee only = x: 10 + 6 + x + x + 26 + 20 + 16 = 100, so x = 11. Milk = 11 + 26 + 20 + 16 = 73. Tea = 10 + 11 + 26 + 16 = 63. Difference = 10.
Q50.How many people like at least two of the three drinks?
- A57
- B73
- C63
- D67
- E71
Answer: (B) 73
Only tea = 20/2 = 10, so only coffee = 10 x 3/5 = 6. Milk and tea only = 1.3 x 20 = 26. Let only milk = tea and coffee only = x: 10 + 6 + x + x + 26 + 20 + 16 = 100, so x = 11. At least two = exactly two + all three = 57 + 16 = 73.
Quant - Bar Graph and Table DI (Q51–55)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: The bar graph (given here as a table) shows the total number of employees (graduate + post graduate) in five companies, and the table shows how many more graduate than post graduate employees each company has. Company A: total 220, graduates exceed post graduates by 4 Company B: total 196, by 2 Company C: total 224, by 36 Company D: total 200, by 90 Company E: total 204, by 96
Q51.What is the difference between the average number of graduate employees in B and D and the average number of post graduate employees in A and E?
- A43
- B33
- C32
- D41
- E31
Answer: (D) 41
Graduates = (total + difference)/2, post graduates = (total - difference)/2. A: 112 and 108; B: 99 and 97; C: 130 and 94; D: 145 and 55; E: 150 and 54. Average graduates of B and D = (99 + 145)/2 = 122. Average post graduates of A and E = (108 + 54)/2 = 81. Difference = 41.
Q52.In company A, the ratio of managers to associates is 7 : 4, and the number of female managers is 16.67% (one-sixth) of the number of male managers. What is the difference between the number of male managers and the number of associates in A?
- A39
- B40
- C30
- D31
- E22
Answer: (B) 40
Graduates = (total + difference)/2, post graduates = (total - difference)/2. A: 112 and 108; B: 99 and 97; C: 130 and 94; D: 145 and 55; E: 150 and 54. Managers = 7/11 x 220 = 140, associates = 80. Male : female managers = 6 : 1, so male managers = 140 x 6/7 = 120. 120 - 80 = 40.
Q53.Company X has as many employees as the average of companies A, C and E, and the same number of graduate employees as company A. What is the ratio of post graduate employees in X to graduate employees in E?
- A57:31
- B22:57
- C52:75
- D75:52
- E30:31
Answer: (C) 52:75
Graduates = (total + difference)/2, post graduates = (total - difference)/2. A: 112 and 108; B: 99 and 97; C: 130 and 94; D: 145 and 55; E: 150 and 54. X = (220 + 224 + 204)/3 = 216. Graduates in X = 112, so post graduates = 104. 104 : 150 = 52 : 75.
Q54.In company C, 50 graduate employees are female, and the number of male graduates is 20 more than the number of female post graduates. The number of male post graduates in C is approximately what percent less than the number of post graduates in D?
- A32%
- B13.30%
- C31.31%
- D22%
- E38.18%
Answer: (E) 38.18%
Graduates = (total + difference)/2, post graduates = (total - difference)/2. A: 112 and 108; B: 99 and 97; C: 130 and 94; D: 145 and 55; E: 150 and 54. Male graduates in C = 130 - 50 = 80, so female post graduates = 60 and male post graduates = 94 - 60 = 34. Post graduates in D = 55. (55 - 34)/55 x 100 = 38.18% less.
Q55.Company F has 121 more graduate employees than company B, and its total number of employees is 125% more than the number of graduate employees in A. How many post graduate employees does F have?
- A32
- B30
- C31
- D22
- E39
Answer: (A) 32
Graduates = (total + difference)/2, post graduates = (total - difference)/2. A: 112 and 108; B: 99 and 97; C: 130 and 94; D: 145 and 55; E: 150 and 54. Graduates in F = 99 + 121 = 220. Total in F = 2.25 x 112 = 252. Post graduates = 252 - 220 = 32.
Quant - Quadratic Equations (Q56–58)
Q56.Directions: Solve equations I and II and choose the correct relation between x and y. I. x² - 19x + 88 = 0 II. y² - 25y + 154 = 0
- Ax > y
- Bx ≥ y
- Cx < y
- Dx ≤ y
- Ex = y or no relation can be established
Answer: (D) x ≤ y
I gives x = 8, 11. II gives y = 11, 14. Comparing every pair: x is never more than y, and x = y when both are 11, so x ≤ y.
Q57.Directions: Solve equations I and II and choose the correct relation between x and y. I. x² - 22x + 117 = 0 II. y² - 11y + 18 = 0
- Ax > y
- Bx ≥ y
- Cx < y
- Dx ≤ y
- Ex = y or no relation can be established
Answer: (B) x ≥ y
I gives x = 9, 13. II gives y = 2, 9. Comparing every pair: x is never less than y, and x = y when both are 9, so x ≥ y.
Q58.Directions: Solve equations I and II and choose the correct relation between x and y. I. 2x² - 10x + 12 = 0 II. y² - 2y - 8 = 0
- Ax > y
- Bx ≥ y
- Cx < y
- Dx ≤ y
- Ex = y or no relation can be established
Answer: (E) x = y or no relation can be established
I gives x = 2, 3. II gives y = -2, 4. Comparing every pair: x = 2 is less than y = 4 but more than y = -2, so no relation can be established.
Quant - Arithmetic - Mixture (Q59–59)
Q59.A container holds 140 litres of a mixture of milk and water in which milk makes up 80%. One-fourth of the mixture is taken out and then 21 litres of water is added. What percentage of the new mixture is water?
- A36%
- B40%
- C30%
- D33⅓%
- E35%
Answer: (D) 33⅓%
Milk = 112 L and water = 28 L. Removing one-fourth leaves milk 84 L and water 21 L. Adding 21 L water gives water 42 L out of 126 L. 42/126 = 1/3 = 33⅓%.
Quant - Arithmetic - Time and Work (Q60–60)
Q60.A and B together can finish a job in 2T days. A alone can finish it in 10 days and B alone in 5T days. What is the value of T?
- A4
- B8
- C5
- D6
- E3
Answer: (E) 3
1/10 + 1/(5T) = 1/(2T). Multiply by 10T: T + 2 = 5, so T = 3. (Check: B alone takes 15 days, together 6 days = 2T.)
Quant - Arithmetic - Percentage (Q61–61)
Q61.A man spends 12% of his monthly salary on education and 7% on rent. He puts Rs. 10,250 into a SIP and saves the remaining 4x% of his salary. If his monthly salary is Rs. 25,000, find x.
- A12
- B10
- C6
- D5
- E15
Answer: (B) 10
Education = Rs. 3,000, rent = Rs. 1,750, SIP = Rs. 10,250. Savings = 25,000 - 15,000 = Rs. 10,000 = 40% of salary. So 4x = 40 and x = 10.
Quant - Arithmetic - Ages (Q62–62)
Q62.The present age of Y is 28 years. Four years from now, the ratio of the ages of X and Y will be 7 : 8. The present age of Z is 25% more than the present age of X. What was Z's age six years ago?
- A24 years
- B28 years
- C26 years
- D22 years
- E20 years
Answer: (A) 24 years
In 4 years Y will be 32, so X will be 32 x 7/8 = 28 and X is 24 now. Z = 1.25 x 24 = 30, so six years ago Z was 24.
Quant - Arithmetic - Boats and Streams (Q63–63)
Q63.The speeds of boats A and B in still water are in the ratio 4 : 5. The speed of the current is 6 km/h, and boat A takes 6 hours to travel 180 km downstream. How long will boat B take to travel 120 km upstream?
- A10 hours
- B4 hours
- C5 hours
- D6 hours
- E8 hours
Answer: (C) 5 hours
A's downstream speed = 180/6 = 30 km/h, so A = 30 - 6 = 24 km/h. B = 24 x 5/4 = 30 km/h. B's upstream speed = 30 - 6 = 24 km/h, so 120 km takes 5 hours.
Quant - Arithmetic - Partnership (Q64–64)
Q64.A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 4. Out of a total profit of Rs. 5,100, A gets Rs. 2,700. If A kept his money in the business 3 months longer than B, for how many months was A's money invested?
- A15
- B6
- C3
- D9
- E12
Answer: (D) 9
B's share = Rs. 2,400, so profit ratio = 9 : 8 = 3t(A) : 4t(B). t(A) : t(B) = 3 : 2, a difference of one part = 3 months. So A invested for 9 months (B for 6).
Quant - Arithmetic - Trains (Q65–65)
Q65.Two trains P and Q, of lengths 400 m and (400 + x) m, run at the same speed. P passes a pole in 16 seconds and Q passes a pole in 24 seconds. How long will Q take to cross a 400 m long platform?
- A40 sec
- B45 sec
- C54 sec
- D24 sec
- E32 sec
Answer: (A) 40 sec
Speed = 400/16 = 25 m/s. Length of Q = 25 x 24 = 600 m. Crossing a 400 m platform = (600 + 400)/25 = 40 seconds.
Quant - Arithmetic - Simple and Compound Interest (Q66–66)
Q66.A invests Rs. X in scheme A at 12% p.a. simple interest for four years and earns Rs. 2,160 as interest. He then invests Rs. (X + 500) in scheme B at 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually) for two years. Find the interest from scheme B.
- ARs. 1,120
- BRs. 870
- CRs. 1,050
- DRs. 1,090
- ERs. 1,205
Answer: (C) Rs. 1,050
X x 12 x 4/100 = 2,160, so X = 4,500. Scheme B: 5,000 x (1.1² - 1) = 5,000 x 0.21 = Rs. 1,050.
Quant - Arithmetic - Average (Q67–67)
Q67.The average weight of X boys in a class is 40 kg and the average weight of the 18 girls in the class is 25 kg. If the total weight of the class is 1,410 kg, find the value of 2.5X.
- A48
- B36
- C72
- D60
- E54
Answer: (D) 60
Girls weigh 18 x 25 = 450 kg, so boys weigh 960 kg and X = 960/40 = 24. 2.5X = 60.
Quant - Arithmetic - Mensuration (Q68–68)
Q68.The circumferences of circles P and Q differ by 132 cm, and the radius of Q is 4 times the radius of P. Find the area of circle Q in square cm. (Take π = 22/7.)
- A2214
- B2004
- C2124
- D2404
- E2464
Answer: (E) 2464
2π(4r - r) = 132, so 6πr = 132 and r = 7 cm. Radius of Q = 28 cm. Area = 22/7 x 28 x 28 = 2464 sq cm.
Quant - Arithmetic - Profit and Loss (Q69–69)
Q69.A retailer marks an article 35% above its cost price and earns a profit of Rs. 96 after giving a 20% discount on the marked price. What would his profit be if he gave a 15% discount instead?
- ARs. 118
- BRs. 177
- CRs. 236
- DRs. 214
- ERs. 154
Answer: (B) Rs. 177
Selling price = 1.35 x 0.8 = 1.08 x CP, so profit = 0.08 CP = 96 and CP = Rs. 1,200. Marked price = Rs. 1,620. At 15% discount, SP = Rs. 1,377, profit = Rs. 177.
Quant - Arithmetic - Mensuration (Q70–70)
Q70.A cylinder and a sphere have the same radius, and the volume of the cylinder is 3 times the volume of the sphere. What is the ratio of the total surface area of the cylinder to the surface area of the sphere?
- A5 : 2
- B4 : 1
- C3 : 2
- D7 : 2
- E2 : 1
Answer: (A) 5 : 2
πr²h = 3 x (4/3)πr³ gives h = 4r. Cylinder TSA = 2πr(h + r) = 10πr². Sphere = 4πr². Ratio = 10 : 4 = 5 : 2.
Reasoning - Box Puzzle (Q71–75)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are kept one above another in a single stack (not necessarily in this order). Box I is three places above box G, and exactly one box is kept between box G and box E. Box H is four places above box E. Box E is kept somewhere above box D. The number of boxes between H and I is the same as the number of boxes between D and E. Box F is immediately below box C. Exactly two boxes are kept between box A and box F. Box B is kept somewhere above box A.
Q71.Which box is kept four places below box C?
- ABox G
- BBox D
- CBox A
- DBox E
- EBox I
Answer: (C) Box A
Final stack (top to bottom): B, H, C, F, I, E, A, G, D. Reasoning: E and G are two places apart and I is three above G; H is four above E; E is above D with as many boxes between D and E as between H and I. Testing the cases, only G at position 2, E at 4, I at 5, H at 8 and D at 1 works; then C-F must sit at 7-6 so that A (three below F) is at 3 and B (above A) takes the top. C is 7th from the bottom; four places below is the 3rd box, A.
Q72.How many boxes are kept above box E?
- ASeven
- BThree
- CFour
- DFive
- ESix
Answer: (D) Five
Final stack (top to bottom): B, H, C, F, I, E, A, G, D. Reasoning: E and G are two places apart and I is three above G; H is four above E; E is above D with as many boxes between D and E as between H and I. Testing the cases, only G at position 2, E at 4, I at 5, H at 8 and D at 1 works; then C-F must sit at 7-6 so that A (three below F) is at 3 and B (above A) takes the top. E is 4th from the bottom, so 5 boxes (I, F, C, H, B) are above it.
Q73.If the boxes are rearranged in alphabetical order from bottom to top (A at the bottom, I at the top), how many boxes will stay in the same position?
- AThree
- BFour
- CNone
- DOne
- ETwo
Answer: (E) Two
Final stack (top to bottom): B, H, C, F, I, E, A, G, D. Reasoning: E and G are two places apart and I is three above G; H is four above E; E is above D with as many boxes between D and E as between H and I. Testing the cases, only G at position 2, E at 4, I at 5, H at 8 and D at 1 works; then C-F must sit at 7-6 so that A (three below F) is at 3 and B (above A) takes the top. From the bottom the stack is D, G, A, E, I, F, C, H, B. Alphabetical order puts F 6th and H 8th, exactly where they already are. So two boxes (F and H) keep their positions.
Q74.Which of the following statements is/are true? I. Exactly three boxes are kept between box G and box E. II. Box H is immediately below the topmost box. III. Box D is kept at the bottom.
- AOnly I
- BOnly II
- CBoth II and III
- DBoth I and III
- EAll I, II and III
Answer: (C) Both II and III
Final stack (top to bottom): B, H, C, F, I, E, A, G, D. Reasoning: E and G are two places apart and I is three above G; H is four above E; E is above D with as many boxes between D and E as between H and I. Testing the cases, only G at position 2, E at 4, I at 5, H at 8 and D at 1 works; then C-F must sit at 7-6 so that A (three below F) is at 3 and B (above A) takes the top. Only A is between G and E, so I is false. H is 8th (just below B at the top), so II is true. D is at the bottom, so III is true.
Q75.Box F is related to box A, and box C is related to box E, in a certain way based on their positions. Following the same pattern, which box is related to box I?
- ABox H
- BBox G
- CBox E
- DBox B
- EBox D
Answer: (B) Box G
Final stack (top to bottom): B, H, C, F, I, E, A, G, D. Reasoning: E and G are two places apart and I is three above G; H is four above E; E is above D with as many boxes between D and E as between H and I. Testing the cases, only G at position 2, E at 4, I at 5, H at 8 and D at 1 works; then C-F must sit at 7-6 so that A (three below F) is at 3 and B (above A) takes the top. A is three places below F, and E is three places below C. Three places below I (5th) is the 2nd box, G.
Reasoning - Syllogism (Q76–78)
Q76.Directions: Take the statements to be true even if they seem to differ from known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Only a few ports are docks. Some docks are ships. Some ships are boats. Conclusions: I. No dock is a boat. II. Some ports being boats is a possibility.
- AOnly conclusion I follows
- BOnly conclusion II follows
- CEither conclusion I or II follows
- DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
- EBoth conclusions I and II follow
Answer: (B) Only conclusion II follows
Docks and boats are linked only through 'some' statements, so no definite relation exists between them; I does not follow (they may or may not overlap). Nothing rules out ports overlapping boats, so II (a possibility) follows. Only II.
Q77.Directions: Take the statements to be true even if they seem to differ from known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Only a few assets are funds. Some funds are shares. No share is a bond. Conclusions: I. Some funds are not bonds. II. All assets being bonds is a possibility.
- AOnly conclusion I follows
- BOnly conclusion II follows
- CEither conclusion I or II follows
- DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
- EBoth conclusions I and II follow
Answer: (E) Both conclusions I and II follow
The funds that are shares can never be bonds, so I follows. 'Only a few assets are funds' does not stop assets from being bonds; all assets (including the asset-funds, which need not be shares) can be bonds, so II is possible. Both follow.
Q78.Directions: Take the statements to be true even if they seem to differ from known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Only a few profits are notices. Some notices are bills. All bills are taxes. Conclusions: I. Some notices are taxes. II. No profit is a bill.
- AOnly conclusion I follows
- BOnly conclusion II follows
- CEither conclusion I or II follows
- DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
- EBoth conclusions I and II follow
Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows
Some notices are bills and all bills are taxes, so those notices are taxes: I follows. Profits and bills have no definite relation, so 'No profit is a bill' is not certain: II does not follow. Only I.
Reasoning - Alphanumeric Series (Q79–79)
Q79.How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'NOSTALGIA' that have as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (counting both forward and backward)?
- ANone
- BOne
- CTwo
- DThree
- EFour
Answer: (D) Three
The pairs are N-O (adjacent in both), S-T (adjacent in both) and O-I (five letters between them in the word, S T A L G, and five in the alphabet, J K L M N). So there are three pairs.
Reasoning - Meaningful Word (Q80–80)
Q80.Using the 3rd, 6th, 7th, 9th and 10th letters from the left of the word 'FABRICATING', a meaningful five-letter English word is formed. What is the fourth letter from the left of that word? If no word can be formed, choose X; if more than one word can be formed, choose Z.
- AC
- BI
- CA
- DX
- EZ
Answer: (B) I
The letters are B (3rd), C (6th), A (7th), I (9th) and N (10th). The only word that can be made is CABIN, whose fourth letter is I.
Reasoning - Month Based Puzzle (Q81–85)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V each do a different activity (yoga, meditation, dancing, hiking, cycling, camping and reading) in a different month among January, March, April, June, July, August and November of the same year (months in calendar order). Cycling is done in a month that has 30 days. Exactly three persons have their months between S and the person who goes cycling. Exactly one person is between S and T. The number of persons after T is the same as the number of persons before the person who does yoga. P is immediately before the person who does dancing. V does meditation, and more than three persons are between P and V. Hiking is done in a 30-day month, before R's month. The person who reads is before Q, and Q does not go hiking.
Q81.Who does his activity in June?
- AU
- BT
- CR
- DS
- EV
Answer: (A) U
Final arrangement: January P (reading), March Q (dancing), April S (yoga), June U (hiking), July T (camping), August V (meditation), November R (cycling). Key steps: P and V need more than three persons between them; cycling must be in April, June or November and four places from S; the persons-after-T rule fixes yoga's position, and only the arrangement above satisfies every clue. June: U (hiking).
Q82.Which activity is done in August?
- ACamping
- BMeditation
- CDancing
- DYoga
- EReading
Answer: (B) Meditation
Final arrangement: January P (reading), March Q (dancing), April S (yoga), June U (hiking), July T (camping), August V (meditation), November R (cycling). Key steps: P and V need more than three persons between them; cycling must be in April, June or November and four places from S; the persons-after-T rule fixes yoga's position, and only the arrangement above satisfies every clue. August: V, meditation.
Q83.Which of the following person-activity pairs is incorrect?
- AT - Camping
- BV - Meditation
- CU - Cycling
- DP - Reading
- ES - Yoga
Answer: (C) U - Cycling
Final arrangement: January P (reading), March Q (dancing), April S (yoga), June U (hiking), July T (camping), August V (meditation), November R (cycling). Key steps: P and V need more than three persons between them; cycling must be in April, June or November and four places from S; the persons-after-T rule fixes yoga's position, and only the arrangement above satisfies every clue. U goes hiking; R goes cycling. So 'U - Cycling' is incorrect.
Q84.How many persons have their months between Q and T?
- AThree
- BFour
- CNone
- DOne
- ETwo
Answer: (E) Two
Final arrangement: January P (reading), March Q (dancing), April S (yoga), June U (hiking), July T (camping), August V (meditation), November R (cycling). Key steps: P and V need more than three persons between them; cycling must be in April, June or November and four places from S; the persons-after-T rule fixes yoga's position, and only the arrangement above satisfies every clue. Q is in March and T in July; S (April) and U (June) are between them: two persons.
Q85.Who goes cycling, and in which month?
- AR, June
- BS, April
- CR, November
- DU, June
- ET, July
Answer: (C) R, November
Final arrangement: January P (reading), March Q (dancing), April S (yoga), June U (hiking), July T (camping), August V (meditation), November R (cycling). Key steps: P and V need more than three persons between them; cycling must be in April, June or November and four places from S; the persons-after-T rule fixes yoga's position, and only the arrangement above satisfies every clue. R goes cycling in November.
Reasoning - Parallel Row Seating (Q86–90)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Fourteen persons sit in two parallel rows of seven. A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in Row 1 facing north; P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit in Row 2 facing south, so each person in Row 1 faces a person in Row 2 (not necessarily in this order). D sits at one end of Row 1, and exactly three persons sit between B and D. Exactly two persons sit between Q and the person who faces B. Exactly one person sits between Q and T. U sits fourth to the right of S, and U does not face D. Exactly one person sits between A and the person who faces S. G sits immediately to the right of C. P does not face C. The number of persons sitting to the right of F is the same as the number sitting to the right of V.
Q86.How many persons sit between R and P?
- AThree
- BFour
- CNone
- DOne
- ETwo
Answer: (A) Three
Final arrangement (seats 1-7 from the west end): Row 1 (facing north): C, G, B, E, A, F, D. Row 2 (facing south): R, V, U, T, P, Q, S. Facing pairs: C-R, G-V, B-U, E-T, A-P, F-Q, D-S. (Remember that for south-facing persons, right is towards the west.) Only this placement meets every clue. R is at seat 1 and P at seat 5 of Row 2; V, U and T sit between them: three.
Q87.Who faces D?
- AR
- BT
- CQ
- DP
- ES
Answer: (E) S
Final arrangement (seats 1-7 from the west end): Row 1 (facing north): C, G, B, E, A, F, D. Row 2 (facing south): R, V, U, T, P, Q, S. Facing pairs: C-R, G-V, B-U, E-T, A-P, F-Q, D-S. (Remember that for south-facing persons, right is towards the west.) Only this placement meets every clue. D (seat 7, Row 1) faces S.
Q88.Which of the following statements is/are true? I. P faces G. II. Exactly one person sits between F and E. III. R sits at one of the ends.
- AOnly I
- BOnly II
- CBoth II and III
- DBoth I and III
- EAll are true
Answer: (C) Both II and III
Final arrangement (seats 1-7 from the west end): Row 1 (facing north): C, G, B, E, A, F, D. Row 2 (facing south): R, V, U, T, P, Q, S. Facing pairs: C-R, G-V, B-U, E-T, A-P, F-Q, D-S. (Remember that for south-facing persons, right is towards the west.) Only this placement meets every clue. P faces A, not G, so I is false. A sits between E and F, so II is true. R is at seat 1, an end, so III is true.
Q89.Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on the arrangement. Which pair does not belong to the group?
- AS - D
- BR - C
- CV - G
- DT - B
- EQ - F
Answer: (D) T - B
Final arrangement (seats 1-7 from the west end): Row 1 (facing north): C, G, B, E, A, F, D. Row 2 (facing south): R, V, U, T, P, Q, S. Facing pairs: C-R, G-V, B-U, E-T, A-P, F-Q, D-S. (Remember that for south-facing persons, right is towards the west.) Only this placement meets every clue. R-C, V-G, Q-F and S-D are facing pairs. T faces E, not B, so T - B is the odd one.
Q90.If the persons in Row 1 are rearranged in alphabetical order from the left end (as they face north), who will remain in the same seat?
- AOnly B and F
- BOnly F
- COnly A
- DOnly B and E
- ENo one
Answer: (B) Only F
Final arrangement (seats 1-7 from the west end): Row 1 (facing north): C, G, B, E, A, F, D. Row 2 (facing south): R, V, U, T, P, Q, S. Facing pairs: C-R, G-V, B-U, E-T, A-P, F-Q, D-S. (Remember that for south-facing persons, right is towards the west.) Only this placement meets every clue. Row 1 from the left is C, G, B, E, A, F, D. Alphabetical order puts F 6th, which is its present seat. Nobody else stays. Answer: only F.
Reasoning - Year Based Puzzle (Q91–95)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Seven persons K, L, M, N, O, P and Q were born on the same date of the same month, in different years among 1955, 1961, 1972, 1987, 1998, 2006 and 2017. Ages are counted as on that date in 2025. M's age is a perfect cube. The ages of M and K differ by 11 years. Exactly three persons were born between K and P. N is 32 years older than Q. L's age is also a perfect cube. The age difference between L and K is more than 10 years.
Q91.How many persons are older than O?
- ATwo
- BThree
- CFour
- DFive
- ESix
Answer: (D) Five
Ages in 2025: 70, 64, 53, 38, 27, 19 and 8; the cubes are 64, 27 and 8. N - Q = 32 fits only 70 and 38, so N was born in 1955 and Q in 1987. M (a cube) and K differ by 11: M = 64, K = 53; or M = 27, K = 38 (not possible, Q is 38); or M = 8, K = 19. If M = 8 and K = 19 (2006), P must be three places away, i.e. 1961 (age 64), leaving L only 27, which is just 8 years from K: not allowed. So M = 64 (1961) and K = 53 (1972). Three persons between K and P puts P in 2017 (age 8), so L = 27 (1998), more than 10 years from K, and O takes 2006. Final: N 1955, M 1961, K 1972, Q 1987, L 1998, O 2006, P 2017. Only P is younger than O, so five persons are older.
Q92.What is the age difference between N and K?
- A43 years
- B17 years
- C11 years
- D51 years
- E32 years
Answer: (B) 17 years
Ages in 2025: 70, 64, 53, 38, 27, 19 and 8; the cubes are 64, 27 and 8. N - Q = 32 fits only 70 and 38, so N was born in 1955 and Q in 1987. M (a cube) and K differ by 11: M = 64, K = 53; or M = 27, K = 38 (not possible, Q is 38); or M = 8, K = 19. If M = 8 and K = 19 (2006), P must be three places away, i.e. 1961 (age 64), leaving L only 27, which is just 8 years from K: not allowed. So M = 64 (1961) and K = 53 (1972). Three persons between K and P puts P in 2017 (age 8), so L = 27 (1998), more than 10 years from K, and O takes 2006. Final: N 1955, M 1961, K 1972, Q 1987, L 1998, O 2006, P 2017. N is 70 and K is 53, a difference of 17 years.
Q93.Who was born in 1972?
- AQ
- BL
- CO
- DP
- EK
Answer: (E) K
Ages in 2025: 70, 64, 53, 38, 27, 19 and 8; the cubes are 64, 27 and 8. N - Q = 32 fits only 70 and 38, so N was born in 1955 and Q in 1987. M (a cube) and K differ by 11: M = 64, K = 53; or M = 27, K = 38 (not possible, Q is 38); or M = 8, K = 19. If M = 8 and K = 19 (2006), P must be three places away, i.e. 1961 (age 64), leaving L only 27, which is just 8 years from K: not allowed. So M = 64 (1961) and K = 53 (1972). Three persons between K and P puts P in 2017 (age 8), so L = 27 (1998), more than 10 years from K, and O takes 2006. Final: N 1955, M 1961, K 1972, Q 1987, L 1998, O 2006, P 2017. K was born in 1972.
Q94.What is the sum of the ages of L and P in 2025?
- A33 years
- B38 years
- C35 years
- D27 years
- E46 years
Answer: (C) 35 years
Ages in 2025: 70, 64, 53, 38, 27, 19 and 8; the cubes are 64, 27 and 8. N - Q = 32 fits only 70 and 38, so N was born in 1955 and Q in 1987. M (a cube) and K differ by 11: M = 64, K = 53; or M = 27, K = 38 (not possible, Q is 38); or M = 8, K = 19. If M = 8 and K = 19 (2006), P must be three places away, i.e. 1961 (age 64), leaving L only 27, which is just 8 years from K: not allowed. So M = 64 (1961) and K = 53 (1972). Three persons between K and P puts P in 2017 (age 8), so L = 27 (1998), more than 10 years from K, and O takes 2006. Final: N 1955, M 1961, K 1972, Q 1987, L 1998, O 2006, P 2017. L is 27 and P is 8, total 35 years.
Q95.The person who is immediately younger than O was born in which year?
- A2017
- B1972
- C1987
- D2006
- E1998
Answer: (A) 2017
Ages in 2025: 70, 64, 53, 38, 27, 19 and 8; the cubes are 64, 27 and 8. N - Q = 32 fits only 70 and 38, so N was born in 1955 and Q in 1987. M (a cube) and K differ by 11: M = 64, K = 53; or M = 27, K = 38 (not possible, Q is 38); or M = 8, K = 19. If M = 8 and K = 19 (2006), P must be three places away, i.e. 1961 (age 64), leaving L only 27, which is just 8 years from K: not allowed. So M = 64 (1961) and K = 53 (1972). Three persons between K and P puts P in 2017 (age 8), so L = 27 (1998), more than 10 years from K, and O takes 2006. Final: N 1955, M 1961, K 1972, Q 1987, L 1998, O 2006, P 2017. O was born in 2006; the next younger person is P, born in 2017.
Reasoning - Circular Seating Arrangement (Q96–100)
- Memory-based paper: recreated from candidate recall of SBI PO Prelims 2025 (4 August 2025, Shift 1). SBI does not release official question papers. Every question has been re-written and re-verified by BookOfExams. Directions: Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit around a circular table facing the centre. Each is from a different city among Jaipur, Meerut, Pune, Agra, Bhopal, Ranchi and Surat (not necessarily in this order). C sits second to the right of the person from Jaipur. Exactly three persons sit between the persons from Jaipur and Pune (counting one way round). G sits fifth to the left of the person from Pune and is an immediate neighbour of the person from Agra. E sits second to the left of the person from Agra. A is from Ranchi, and D sits fourth to the right of A. F is not from Jaipur. F is an immediate neighbour of the person from Meerut. G is not from Bhopal.
Q96.Who sits fourth to the right of the person from Meerut?
- AB
- BG
- CThe person from Pune
- DThe person from Bhopal
- EThe person from Agra
Answer: (A) B
Final arrangement, going round to each person's left starting from A: A (Ranchi), B (Jaipur), G (Surat), D (Agra), F (Pune), E (Meerut), C (Bhopal). So, for example, B is immediately left of A and C is immediately right of A. Only this arrangement satisfies all the clues. The Meerut person is E. Counting to E's right: F (1st), D (2nd), G (3rd), B (4th). Answer: B.
Q97.Which of the following person-city pairs is correct?
- AF - Meerut
- BG - Agra
- CD - Pune
- DC - Bhopal
- EE - Jaipur
Answer: (D) C - Bhopal
Final arrangement, going round to each person's left starting from A: A (Ranchi), B (Jaipur), G (Surat), D (Agra), F (Pune), E (Meerut), C (Bhopal). So, for example, B is immediately left of A and C is immediately right of A. Only this arrangement satisfies all the clues. C is from Bhopal. E is from Meerut, F from Pune, G from Surat and D from Agra.
Q98.What is the position of the person from Surat with respect to A?
- AImmediate right
- BSecond to the right
- CFourth to the left
- DThird to the right
- ESecond to the left
Answer: (E) Second to the left
Final arrangement, going round to each person's left starting from A: A (Ranchi), B (Jaipur), G (Surat), D (Agra), F (Pune), E (Meerut), C (Bhopal). So, for example, B is immediately left of A and C is immediately right of A. Only this arrangement satisfies all the clues. The Surat person is G. To A's left come B (1st) and G (2nd), so G is second to the left of A.
Q99.Which of the following statements is true?
- AThe person from Agra sits third to the left of E.
- BC is an immediate neighbour of the person from Pune.
- CG is from Surat.
- DA sits immediately to the right of G.
- EB sits third to the right of D.
Answer: (C) G is from Surat.
Final arrangement, going round to each person's left starting from A: A (Ranchi), B (Jaipur), G (Surat), D (Agra), F (Pune), E (Meerut), C (Bhopal). So, for example, B is immediately left of A and C is immediately right of A. Only this arrangement satisfies all the clues. G is from Surat. Checking the others: third to the right of D is A; third to the left of E is B (not the Agra person D); C's neighbours are E and A, not F (Pune); immediately right of G is B, not A.
Q100.The person who sits exactly between the persons from Agra and Jaipur is from which city?
- AAgra
- BSurat
- CPune
- DBhopal
- EMeerut
Answer: (B) Surat
Final arrangement, going round to each person's left starting from A: A (Ranchi), B (Jaipur), G (Surat), D (Agra), F (Pune), E (Meerut), C (Bhopal). So, for example, B is immediately left of A and C is immediately right of A. Only this arrangement satisfies all the clues. The Agra person is D and the Jaipur person is B. Only G sits between them on the shorter side, and G is from Surat.
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