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IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelims Memory-Based Paper 4 October Shift 2 with Answers

Exam date
4 October 2025
Shift
Shift 2
Source
Memory-based (candidate recall)

IBPS does not publish question papers or answer keys. These papers are rebuilt from candidates' recall of the shift, written fresh and fully re-checked.

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English - Reading Comprehension (Q1–10)

  1. Note: This paper is recreated from candidate recall; IBPS does not release official question papers. Every question re-verified by BookOfExams. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Every handmade guitar sold by a small California workshop begins its life in a forest that may be thousands of miles away. For decades, the state's boutique guitar makers have relied on a handful of tonewoods: spruce for the soundboard, mahogany for the neck and rosewood for the fingerboard. These woods are valued not only for their strength and appearance but also for the particular warmth of sound they impart to an instrument. Yet the forests that supply them are under growing strain, and the industry has had to face an awkward question: can fine guitars be made without feeding deforestation? Demand alone is not the problem. Tonewood is an unusually choosy material. A luthier building a high-end acoustic guitar needs wood that is straight-grained, free of knots, properly aged and __________ when the tree has reached just the right stage of maturity. Because of these exacting requirements, only a small share of the timber in even a well-managed forest is good enough for premium instruments. When loggers cut carelessly in search of those few prized pieces, they damage far more of the surrounding forest than the wood they actually take. Regulation has added pressure of its own. Amendments to the United States Lacey Act made it a federal offence to import wood that was harvested in breach of the laws of its country of origin. California guitar companies must now trace each piece of timber back to its source and keep documents to prove it. Several have responded by forming direct partnerships with certified, sustainably run forestry operations in countries such as Canada and Germany and in well-managed parts of South America. Some firms have gone further and invested in research on alternative materials. Necks made of carbon-fibre composites, timber reclaimed from city trees and plantation-grown spruce raised specifically for its acoustic qualities are slowly finding a place on production lines. A few makers have also begun seasoning and storing legally sourced wood decades ahead of use, building reserves that protect them from both supply shocks and changes in the rules. The best guitars, it seems, need more than skilled hands. They also depend on a careful and ethical relationship with the forests that make them possible.

    Q1.Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage? (I) Tonewoods are valued both for their physical qualities and for the sound they give an instrument. (II) Because of the amended Lacey Act, guitar companies must trace their timber back to its origin and document it. (III) Most of the timber in a sustainably managed forest meets the standard needed for premium guitars.

    • AOnly (I)
    • BBoth (I) and (II)
    • COnly (III)
    • DBoth (II) and (III)
    • EAll (I), (II) and (III)

    Answer: (B) Both (I) and (II)

    (I) matches the first paragraph and (II) matches the third. (III) is wrong: the passage says only a small share of the timber is good enough.

  2. Q2.Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT according to the passage? (I) Carbon-fibre necks and reclaimed timber have completely replaced traditional tonewoods at all guitar makers. (II) Some California guitar makers have partnered directly with certified forestry operations in Canada and Germany. (III) A few makers store legally sourced wood decades in advance to protect themselves from supply shocks.

    • AOnly (I)
    • BOnly (II)
    • CBoth (I) and (III)
    • DBoth (II) and (III)
    • EAll (I), (II) and (III)

    Answer: (A) Only (I)

    The passage says these alternatives are 'slowly finding a place', not that they have replaced tonewoods everywhere, so (I) is incorrect. (II) and (III) are stated in the passage.

  3. Q3.Which of the following is/are TRUE about the wood needed for premium guitars? (I) It must be straight-grained, knot-free, properly aged and taken at the right stage of the tree's maturity. (II) Most trees in any forest naturally meet the standard that boutique makers require. (III) Careless logging for these select pieces harms the forest well beyond the trees that are taken.

    • AOnly (I)
    • BBoth (I) and (III)
    • COnly (II)
    • DBoth (II) and (III)
    • EAll (I), (II) and (III)

    Answer: (B) Both (I) and (III)

    (I) and (III) come straight from the second paragraph. (II) contradicts it: only a small share qualifies.

  4. Q4.What does the passage suggest about the role of regulation in the California guitar industry?

    • AIt has forced makers to give up acoustic guitars for electric ones.
    • BIt has mainly helped large firms and pushed small makers out.
    • CIt has made companies move their workshops out of the United States.
    • DIt has made timber imports impossible for boutique makers.
    • EIt has pushed makers to source timber in a traceable, documented way.

    Answer: (E) It has pushed makers to source timber in a traceable, documented way.

    The third paragraph says companies must now trace each piece of timber to its source and keep documents to prove it. None of the other effects is mentioned.

  5. Q5.Why, according to the passage, can tonewood harvesting do disproportionate damage even in well-managed forests?

    • AManaged forests produce poor wood, so makers secretly cut elsewhere.
    • BSelecting individual trees is technically impossible.
    • CForest rules ban selective cutting altogether.
    • DOnly a small share of trees qualify, so much of the forest is disturbed in finding them.
    • EMakers deliberately target the oldest trees.

    Answer: (D) Only a small share of trees qualify, so much of the forest is disturbed in finding them.

    The passage explains that only a small share of timber is good enough, and careless cutting in search of it damages far more forest than the wood taken.

  6. Q6.Which word is most similar in meaning to 'impart' as used in the passage?

    • AWithhold
    • BDemand
    • CRemove
    • DExtract
    • EConvey

    Answer: (E) Convey

    The woods 'impart' warmth of sound to an instrument, i.e. they give or convey it.

  7. Q7.Which word is most similar in meaning to 'exacting' as used in the passage?

    • AOrdinary
    • BRelaxed
    • CFlexible
    • DStringent
    • ELenient

    Answer: (D) Stringent

    'Exacting requirements' are demanding or strict ones, so 'stringent' is closest.

  8. Q8.Which word best fills the blank in the second paragraph ('properly aged and __________ when the tree has reached just the right stage of maturity')?

    • Aprocessed
    • Bdiscarded
    • Cplanted
    • Dtransported
    • Eharvested

    Answer: (E) harvested

    The blank describes when the wood is taken from the tree: it must be harvested at the right stage of maturity.

  9. Q9.Which alternative approaches have some guitar makers adopted to depend less on traditional tonewoods?

    • ALobbying to relax forest laws
    • BMaking every part of the guitar from carbon fibre
    • CGiving up handmade work for mass production with plastics
    • DImporting finished parts from countries with weaker rules
    • EUsing composites, reclaimed city timber and plantation-grown wood

    Answer: (E) Using composites, reclaimed city timber and plantation-grown wood

    The fourth paragraph lists carbon-fibre composite necks, timber reclaimed from city trees and plantation-grown spruce.

  10. Q10.What does the practice of seasoning and storing legally sourced wood decades ahead of use reveal about these guitar makers?

    • AThey plan to leave the industry once the reserves run out.
    • BThey are stockpiling wood illegally to get around the Lacey Act.
    • CThey have stopped researching alternative materials.
    • DThey treat sustainably sourced timber as a long-term strategic asset.
    • EThey believe plantation wood will never sound good enough.

    Answer: (D) They treat sustainably sourced timber as a long-term strategic asset.

    The passage says these reserves protect the makers from supply shocks and rule changes, showing long-term planning around legally sourced wood.

English - Sentence Rearrangement (Q11–14)

  1. Q11.The parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Choose the sequence that forms a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If the given order (A-B-C-D) is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. (A) are more likely to need hospital care (B) during severe heatwaves (C) studies show that elderly people (D) who live alone in crowded cities

    • ACDAB
    • BADCB
    • CCABD
    • DBADC
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (A) CDAB

    'Studies show that elderly people (C) who live alone in crowded cities (D) are more likely to need hospital care (A) during severe heatwaves (B).'

  2. Q12.The parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Choose the sequence that forms a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If the given order (A-B-C-D) is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. (A) companies hoping to (B) keep pace with rising demand (C) chain is essential for (D) building a reliable supply

    • AACDB
    • BCADB
    • CBACD
    • DDCAB
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (D) DCAB

    'Building a reliable supply (D) chain is essential for (C) companies hoping to (A) keep pace with rising demand (B).'

  3. Q13.The parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Choose the sequence that forms a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If the given order (A-B-C-D) is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. (A) the statistics ministry on Monday (B) according to figures released by (C) a six-month low of 4.1 percent (D) the country's retail inflation eased to

    • ADCAB
    • BDCBA
    • CCDAB
    • DCADB
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (B) DCBA

    'The country's retail inflation eased to (D) a six-month low of 4.1 percent (C) according to figures released by (B) the statistics ministry on Monday (A).'

  4. Q14.The parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Choose the sequence that forms a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If the given order (A-B-C-D) is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. (A) greener, quieter and more affordable (B) twin challenge of cutting emissions while (C) the railway sector faces the (D) making city travel

    • ABCDA
    • BDCAB
    • CCDBA
    • DCBDA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (D) CBDA

    'The railway sector faces the (C) twin challenge of cutting emissions while (B) making city travel (D) greener, quieter and more affordable (A).'

English - Spelling Error (Q15–19)

  1. Q15.In the sentence below, one of the four words listed in options (a) to (d) may be misspelt or wrongly used. Choose that word. If all four are correct, choose 'All are correct'. The supervisor considered it neccessary to enforce discipline among the trainees by holding surprise inspections.

    • Asupervisor
    • Bneccessary
    • Cdiscipline
    • Dinspections
    • EAll are correct

    Answer: (B) neccessary

    The correct spelling is 'necessary' (one c, double s).

  2. Q16.In the sentence below, one of the four words listed in options (a) to (d) may be misspelt or wrongly used. Choose that word. If all four are correct, choose 'All are correct'. The clerk promptly acknowledged the customer's grievance and assured her of a satisfactory resolution within two working days.

    • Aacknowledged
    • Bgrievance
    • Csatisfactory
    • Dresolution
    • EAll are correct

    Answer: (E) All are correct

    All four words are spelt and used correctly.

  3. Q17.In the sentence below, one of the four words listed in options (a) to (d) may be misspelt or wrongly used. Choose that word. If all four are correct, choose 'All are correct'. The probationary officer was asked to reconcile the daily transactions before the close of buisness hours.

    • Aprobationary
    • Breconcile
    • Ctransactions
    • Dbuisness
    • EAll are correct

    Answer: (D) buisness

    The correct spelling is 'business'.

  4. Q18.In the sentence below, one of the four words listed in options (a) to (d) may be misspelt or wrongly used. Choose that word. If all four are correct, choose 'All are correct'. The cashier carefully counted the notes, matched them against the ledger and reported the balance to the manager.

    • Acashier
    • Bcounted
    • Cledger
    • Dbalance
    • EAll are correct

    Answer: (E) All are correct

    All four words are spelt and used correctly.

  5. Q19.In the sentence below, one of the four words listed in options (a) to (d) may be misspelt or wrongly used. Choose that word. If all four are correct, choose 'All are correct'. The junior prefect dilligently supervised the morning assembly, ensuring that every student followed the prescribed rules.

    • Adilligently
    • Bsupervised
    • Cassembly
    • Dprescribed
    • EAll are correct

    Answer: (A) dilligently

    The correct spelling is 'diligently' (one l).

English - Word Usage (Q20–20)

  1. Q20.In which of the following sentences is the word BOARD used correctly? (I) The manager decided to board the proposal before presenting it to the clients. (II) Passengers were asked to board the train ten minutes before departure. (III) She was invited to join the board of directors because of her experience in finance.

    • AOnly (I)
    • BBoth (I) and (II)
    • CBoth (II) and (III)
    • DOnly (III)
    • EAll of these

    Answer: (C) Both (II) and (III)

    In (II) 'board' means to get on a vehicle, and in (III) it means a governing body; both are correct. 'Board the proposal' in (I) has no meaning.

English - Cloze Test (Q21–25)

  1. In the following passage there are five blanks, labelled (A) to (E). Choose the most suitable word for each blank. Planting trees is one of the best ways to improve the environment, but lasting success depends on doing it properly. Before a plantation drive begins, organisers should ____(A)____ native species that suit the local climate and soil. Experts advise preparing the land well, leaving enough space between saplings and pairing planting with water-saving measures. These practices work best when ____(B)____ with regular monitoring, which raises the survival rate of young plants. Young trees also need protection from grazing animals, pests and harsh weather. Local residents, schools and volunteers can ____(C)____ together to look after the saplings during the first few years, when they are most vulnerable. Simple steps such as mulching, watering in dry spells and replacing damaged plants help to ____(D)____ healthy growth. When these guidelines are followed, plantation campaigns bring lasting benefits: cleaner air, less soil erosion and richer wildlife. Well-planned efforts of this kind can ____(E)____ a greener future for the generations to come.

    Q21.Which word fits blank (A)?

    • Aselect
    • Bcollect
    • Cdisturb
    • Dborrow
    • Ereject

    Answer: (A) select

    Organisers should select (choose) native species suited to the climate and soil.

  2. Q22.Which word fits blank (B)?

    • Apostponed
    • Bexchanged
    • Cremoved
    • Dseparated
    • Ecombined

    Answer: (E) combined

    The practices work best when combined with regular monitoring.

  3. Q23.Which word fits blank (C)?

    • Adisappear
    • Bhesitate
    • Ccompete
    • Dwork
    • Edivide

    Answer: (D) work

    Residents, schools and volunteers can work together to look after the saplings.

  4. Q24.Which word fits blank (D)?

    • Aensure
    • Breduce
    • Cignore
    • Dprevent
    • Einterrupt

    Answer: (A) ensure

    Mulching and watering help to ensure healthy growth.

  5. Q25.Which word fits blank (E)?

    • Apostpone
    • Bdamage
    • Ccreate
    • Dweaken
    • Ethreaten

    Answer: (C) create

    Well-planned efforts can create a greener future.

English - Error Spotting (Q26–30)

  1. Q26.The sentence below is divided into four parts, (A) to (D). Identify the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The amphibian (A)/ is capable of (B)/ live (C)/ both on land and in water. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (C) C

    'Capable of' must be followed by a gerund: 'capable of living'. The error is in part C.

  2. Q27.The sentence below is divided into four parts, (A) to (D). Identify the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The board approved (A)/ the plan (B)/ of introduce the (C)/ new attendance system at once. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (C) C

    After the preposition 'of', the verb must take the -ing form: 'of introducing the'. The error is in part C.

  3. Q28.The sentence below is divided into four parts, (A) to (D). Identify the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The sprinter had (A)/ broke the national (B)/ record twice before (C)/ he turned twenty. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (B) B

    The past perfect needs the past participle: 'had broken', not 'had broke'. The error is in part B.

  4. Q29.The sentence below is divided into four parts, (A) to (D). Identify the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The tired horse was (A)/ in not mood (B)/ to run another race (C)/ after the long journey. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (B) B

    The idiom is 'in no mood'. The error is in part B.

  5. Q30.The sentence below is divided into four parts, (A) to (D). Identify the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The survey (A)/ results has prompted (B)/ several banks to (C)/ revise their lending rates. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (B) B

    The subject 'results' is plural, so the verb should be 'have prompted'. The error is in part B.

Quantitative Aptitude - Data Interpretation (Q31–35)

  1. A line graph shows the total population (in thousands) of a town from 2002 to 2006. The values read from the graph are: Year | 2002 | 2003 | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 Population (in thousands) | 240 | 270 | 300 | 330 | 390

    Q31.The population in 2006 is approximately what percentage of the population in 2003?

    • A144.44%
    • B150%
    • C135%
    • D155.56%
    • E140%

    Answer: (A) 144.44%

    Population in 2006 = 390 thousand, in 2003 = 270 thousand. Required % = 390/270 x 100 = 144.44% (approx.).

  2. Q32.What is the average annual increase in the population from 2002 to 2006?

    • A42.5 thousand
    • B40 thousand
    • C37.5 thousand
    • D35 thousand
    • E32.5 thousand

    Answer: (C) 37.5 thousand

    Total increase from 2002 to 2006 = 390 - 240 = 150 thousand, spread over 4 yearly steps. Average annual increase = 150/4 = 37.5 thousand.

  3. Q33.By how many thousand does the population in 2005 exceed the average population of 2002 and 2004?

    • A70
    • B55
    • C50
    • D65
    • E60

    Answer: (E) 60

    Average of 2002 and 2004 = (240 + 300)/2 = 270 thousand. 2005 population = 330 thousand. Difference = 330 - 270 = 60 thousand.

  4. Q34.The increase in population from 2004 to 2006 is what percentage more than the increase from 2002 to 2004?

    • A40%
    • B80%
    • C75%
    • D50%
    • E60%

    Answer: (D) 50%

    Increase 2004 to 2006 = 390 - 300 = 90 thousand. Increase 2002 to 2004 = 300 - 240 = 60 thousand. Required % = (90 - 60)/60 x 100 = 50%.

  5. Q35.If 40% of the population in 2006 were females, then the number of males in 2006 was how many thousand less than the total population in 2002?

    • A6
    • B12
    • C3
    • D10
    • E8

    Answer: (A) 6

    Males in 2006 = 60% of 390 = 234 thousand. Population in 2002 = 240 thousand. Difference = 240 - 234 = 6 thousand.

Quantitative Aptitude - Simplification (Q36–47)

  1. Q36.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 150% of 240 + 25% of 160 = ?

    • A380
    • B410
    • C400
    • D390
    • E420

    Answer: (C) 400

    150% of 240 = 360 and 25% of 160 = 40. 360 + 40 = 400.

  2. Q37.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (√4900 - ∛1728) × 1/2 = ?

    • A30
    • B32
    • C28
    • D29
    • E31

    Answer: (D) 29

    √4900 = 70 and ∛1728 = 12. (70 - 12) × 1/2 = 58/2 = 29.

  3. Q38.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 25.678 - 8.432 - 7.246 - 3 = ?

    • A6.5
    • B7.1
    • C6.9
    • D7.05
    • E7

    Answer: (E) 7

    25.678 - 8.432 = 17.246; 17.246 - 7.246 = 10; 10 - 3 = 7.

  4. Q39.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? √? × √1600 = 2000

    • A2500
    • B2601
    • C2209
    • D2304
    • E2401

    Answer: (A) 2500

    √1600 = 40, so √? = 2000/40 = 50 and ? = 50² = 2500.

  5. Q40.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 6859 + 1331 - 3277 = ?

    • A1512
    • B4170
    • C4913
    • D5650
    • E7218

    Answer: (C) 4913

    6859 + 1331 = 8190; 8190 - 3277 = 4913.

  6. Q41.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 40% of 150 + 20% of 200 = ?

    • A114
    • B100
    • C110
    • D90
    • E105

    Answer: (B) 100

    40% of 150 = 60 and 20% of 200 = 40. 60 + 40 = 100.

  7. Q42.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 3750 ÷ 12.5 + 180 = ?

    • A460
    • B410
    • C490
    • D500
    • E480

    Answer: (E) 480

    3750 ÷ 12.5 = 300; 300 + 180 = 480.

  8. Q43.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? ∛512 + 25% of 16 = ? + 3

    • A10
    • B6
    • C8
    • D9
    • E7

    Answer: (D) 9

    ∛512 = 8 and 25% of 16 = 4. So 12 = ? + 3, giving ? = 9.

  9. Q44.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (96)² + ? = (140)² - (60)² - 816

    • A5968
    • B6000
    • C6016
    • D6032
    • E5984

    Answer: (A) 5968

    140² - 60² = 19600 - 3600 = 16000; 16000 - 816 = 15184. 96² = 9216, so ? = 15184 - 9216 = 5968.

  10. Q45.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? √49 + 3½ × 4 + ? = 35

    • A13
    • B12
    • C14
    • D15
    • E16

    Answer: (C) 14

    √49 = 7 and 3½ × 4 = 14. So 21 + ? = 35 and ? = 14.

  11. Q46.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (?)² = 64 × 441 × 1/49 (? is positive)

    • A20
    • B22
    • C14
    • D24
    • E26

    Answer: (D) 24

    441 × 1/49 = 9, so (?)² = 64 × 9 = 576 and ? = 24.

  12. Q47.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 845 + 55 + ? = 1000 + 50

    • A160
    • B120
    • C130
    • D140
    • E150

    Answer: (E) 150

    845 + 55 = 900 and 1000 + 50 = 1050. ? = 1050 - 900 = 150.

Quantitative Aptitude - Data Interpretation (Q48–52)

  1. The table shows the number of school textbooks of five subjects sold by four stores (A, B, C and D) during a month. Store | Mathematics | Science | English | Social Science | Computer Science A | 320 | 260 | 180 | 220 | 140 B | 280 | 300 | 220 | 180 | 160 C | 360 | 240 | 200 | 260 | 120 D | 300 | 280 | 240 | 200 | 180

    Q48.The total number of textbooks sold by store C is approximately what percentage more than the total sold by store A?

    • A18%
    • B5%
    • C8%
    • D2%
    • E11%

    Answer: (B) 5%

    Store C total = 360 + 240 + 200 + 260 + 120 = 1180. Store A total = 320 + 260 + 180 + 220 + 140 = 1120. Required % = 60/1120 x 100 = 5.36%, about 5%.

  2. Q49.By how much is the number of Computer Science textbooks sold by stores B and D together less than the number of Mathematics textbooks sold by stores A and C together?

    • A450
    • B180
    • C290
    • D340
    • E270

    Answer: (D) 340

    Computer Science, B + D = 160 + 180 = 340. Mathematics, A + C = 320 + 360 = 680. Difference = 680 - 340 = 340.

  3. Q50.What is the average number of Social Science textbooks sold by the four stores?

    • A225
    • B205
    • C215
    • D220
    • E210

    Answer: (C) 215

    Social Science total = 220 + 180 + 260 + 200 = 860. Average = 860/4 = 215.

  4. Q51.What is the ratio of English textbooks sold by store C to Social Science textbooks sold by store B?

    • A10:3
    • B18:33
    • C11:5
    • D10:11
    • E10:9

    Answer: (E) 10:9

    English by C = 200 and Social Science by B = 180. Ratio = 200 : 180 = 10 : 9.

  5. Q52.If customers returned 25% of the Mathematics textbooks sold by store B, how many Mathematics textbooks finally remained sold by store B?

    • A210
    • B235
    • C220
    • D200
    • E215

    Answer: (A) 210

    Mathematics by B = 280. Returned = 25% of 280 = 70. Remaining sold = 280 - 70 = 210.

Quantitative Aptitude - Arithmetic (Q53–65)

  1. Q53.A and B started a business with capitals of Rs 24,000 and Rs 30,000 respectively. B withdrew from the business after 4 months. If the total profit at the end of the year is Rs 3,400, find B's share of the profit.

    • ARs 900
    • BRs 1000
    • CRs 1100
    • DRs 800
    • ERs 1200

    Answer: (B) Rs 1000

    A's capital-months = 24000 x 12 = 2,88,000. B's = 30000 x 4 = 1,20,000. Ratio = 12 : 5. B's share = 5/17 x 3400 = Rs 1000.

  2. Q54.Ravi saves 18% of his income. His income increases by 20% and his expenditure increases by 1/12 of the original expenditure. The increase in his savings is what percentage of his original income?

    • A13 5/6%
    • B12 1/2%
    • C13 1/6%
    • D12 2/3%
    • E15%

    Answer: (C) 13 1/6%

    Take income = 100, so savings = 18 and expenditure = 82. New income = 120; new expenditure = 82 + 82/12 = 88 5/6. New savings = 120 - 88 5/6 = 31 1/6. Increase = 31 1/6 - 18 = 13 1/6, i.e. 13 1/6% of the original income.

  3. Q55.The population of a town was 25,000. It increased by 10% in the first year and decreased by 20% in the second year. What was the population at the end of two years?

    • A24000
    • B22000
    • C23000
    • D25000
    • E21000

    Answer: (B) 22000

    After year 1: 25000 x 1.1 = 27500. After year 2: 27500 x 0.8 = 22000.

  4. Q56.The average of A, B and C is 72. A is 24 more than B, and the ratio of (A + B) to C is 5 : 4. Find B.

    • A48
    • B64
    • C72
    • D40
    • E56

    Answer: (A) 48

    A + B + C = 216. With (A + B) : C = 5 : 4, A + B = 120 and C = 96. A - B = 24, so B = (120 - 24)/2 = 48.

  5. Q57.The present ages of a mother and her daughter add up to 70 years. Five years ago, the mother was three times as old as the daughter. Find the mother's present age (in years).

    • A45
    • B48
    • C55
    • D50
    • E52

    Answer: (D) 50

    Let the daughter be d. Mother = 70 - d. (70 - d - 5) = 3(d - 5) gives 65 - d = 3d - 15, so d = 20 and the mother is 50.

  6. Q58.The marked price of a shirt is Rs 1050. P bought it for Rs 756 after two successive discounts. If the first discount was 10%, what was the second discount?

    • A15%
    • B12%
    • C24%
    • D22%
    • E20%

    Answer: (E) 20%

    After the first discount: 90% of 1050 = Rs 945. The second discount brings 945 down to 756, a cut of 189. 189/945 x 100 = 20%.

  7. Q59.50 litres of water are added to 150 litres of pure milk. Then 20% of the mixture is taken out. After that, y litres of water are added so that water becomes 50% of the final mixture. Find y.

    • A25
    • B55
    • C35
    • D80
    • E40

    Answer: (D) 80

    Mixture = 200 L (milk 150, water 50). Removing 20% leaves 160 L: milk 120 L, water 40 L. For water to be 50%, water must equal milk: 40 + y = 120, so y = 80.

  8. Q60.A invested Rs 450 at 20% p.a. and B invested Rs 800 at 10% p.a., both at simple interest for two years. What is the ratio of the interest received by B to that received by A?

    • A8 : 9
    • B8 : 7
    • C8 : 11
    • D9 : 8
    • E4 : 5

    Answer: (A) 8 : 9

    Interest of A = 450 x 20 x 2/100 = Rs 180. Interest of B = 800 x 10 x 2/100 = Rs 160. B : A = 160 : 180 = 8 : 9.

  9. Q61.The average of six integers (four negative and two positive) is zero, and the average of the two positive integers is 25. What is the lowest possible value of the smallest of the negative integers?

    • A-2
    • B1
    • C-47
    • D47
    • E-1

    Answer: (C) -47

    The sum of all six is 0 and the two positives add to 50, so the four negatives add to -50. The smallest one is as low as possible when the other three are as close to zero as possible, i.e. -1 each. Then the smallest = -50 + 3 = -47.

  10. Q62.The sides of two squares X and Y are in the ratio 5 : 9. If their diagonals differ by 16√2 cm, what is the difference between their areas (in cm²)?

    • A796
    • B896
    • C596
    • D696
    • E256

    Answer: (B) 896

    Sides 5k and 9k give diagonals 5k√2 and 9k√2. 4k√2 = 16√2, so k = 4. Sides are 20 cm and 36 cm; areas 400 and 1296 cm². Difference = 896 cm².

  11. Q63.A class has two sections. The average mark of the whole class is 70. Section A averages 65 and section B averages 85. What is the ratio of the number of students in section A to section B?

    • A1:7
    • B17:24
    • C2:3
    • D2:7
    • E3:1

    Answer: (E) 3:1

    65a + 85b = 70(a + b) gives 15b = 5a, so a : b = 3 : 1.

  12. Q64.A train crosses a 240 m long bridge in 28 seconds and a pole in 16 seconds. Find the length of the train (in m) and its speed (in km/h), respectively.

    • A320 & 72
    • B240 & 72
    • C480 & 72
    • D400 & 72
    • E360 & 72

    Answer: (A) 320 & 72

    In the extra 12 seconds the train covers the 240 m bridge, so speed = 20 m/s = 72 km/h. Length = 20 x 16 = 320 m.

  13. Q65.The upstream and downstream speeds of a boat are in the ratio 3 : 5, and the speed of the stream is 4 m/s. How long will the boat take to go 120 m upstream and then come back 120 m downstream?

    • A14 sec
    • B26 sec
    • C16 sec
    • D15 sec
    • E12 sec

    Answer: (C) 16 sec

    Downstream - upstream = 2 x stream speed = 8 m/s, and it equals 5k - 3k = 2k, so k = 4. Upstream = 12 m/s, downstream = 20 m/s. Time = 120/12 + 120/20 = 10 + 6 = 16 seconds.

Reasoning - Puzzle (Q66–69)

  1. Eight boxes I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are kept one above another in a single stack, not necessarily in this order. Exactly four boxes are kept between K and M. N is kept two places above K (that is, exactly one box is between them and N is higher). Exactly two boxes are kept between N and P. P and I are kept next to each other. J is kept immediately above O. The number of boxes kept below O is the same as the number of boxes kept above L.

    Q66.How many boxes are kept between box N and box O?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • EMore than four

    Answer: (E) More than four

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). K and M are five places apart, and N = K + 2, so K is at 1, 2 or 3 (then M is 6, 7 or 8) or K is 6 (then M = 1 and N = 8). Testing each case with P three places from N, I next to P, J just above O and (boxes below O) = (boxes above L), only K = 6 works: N = 8, M = 1, P = 5, I = 4, L = 7, O = 2, J = 3. Stack from top to bottom: N, L, K, P, I, J, O, M. Between N (top) and O (second from bottom) are L, K, P, I and J: five boxes, so more than four.

  2. Q67.If all the boxes are rearranged in alphabetical order from top to bottom (I at the top), how many boxes will remain in their original positions?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • EFive

    Answer: (B) Two

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). K and M are five places apart, and N = K + 2, so K is at 1, 2 or 3 (then M is 6, 7 or 8) or K is 6 (then M = 1 and N = 8). Testing each case with P three places from N, I next to P, J just above O and (boxes below O) = (boxes above L), only K = 6 works: N = 8, M = 1, P = 5, I = 4, L = 7, O = 2, J = 3. Stack from top to bottom: N, L, K, P, I, J, O, M. Alphabetical order from the top: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P. Compared with N, L, K, P, I, J, O, M, only K (third from top) and O (seventh from top) stay in place: two boxes.

  3. Q68.Which box is kept immediately above box P?

    • ABox J
    • BBox K
    • CBox M
    • DBox N
    • EBox L

    Answer: (B) Box K

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). K and M are five places apart, and N = K + 2, so K is at 1, 2 or 3 (then M is 6, 7 or 8) or K is 6 (then M = 1 and N = 8). Testing each case with P three places from N, I next to P, J just above O and (boxes below O) = (boxes above L), only K = 6 works: N = 8, M = 1, P = 5, I = 4, L = 7, O = 2, J = 3. Stack from top to bottom: N, L, K, P, I, J, O, M. K is directly above P.

  4. Q69.Which of the following statements is/are NOT true? I. No box is kept below box M. II. Box I is kept below box O. III. An even number of boxes are kept below box L.

    • AOnly I
    • BBoth I and II
    • CBoth II and III
    • DOnly II
    • EOnly III

    Answer: (D) Only II

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). K and M are five places apart, and N = K + 2, so K is at 1, 2 or 3 (then M is 6, 7 or 8) or K is 6 (then M = 1 and N = 8). Testing each case with P three places from N, I next to P, J just above O and (boxes below O) = (boxes above L), only K = 6 works: N = 8, M = 1, P = 5, I = 4, L = 7, O = 2, J = 3. Stack from top to bottom: N, L, K, P, I, J, O, M. I is true (M is at the bottom). II is false (I is at position 4, above O at position 2). III is true (six boxes are below L). So only II is not true.

Reasoning - Coding-Decoding (Q70–74)

  1. In a certain code language: 'justice delayed is denied' is written as 'bv hj kr jh' 'police denied public safety' is written as 'jh rt nh tf' 'delayed trial denied justice' is written as 'hj jh jc bv' 'public justice must prevail' is written as 'hj xt bo nh' (Each word has one fixed code.)

    Q70.What is the code for 'justice prevail'?

    • Axt hj
    • Bhj bo
    • Cbv hj
    • Dkr hj
    • ECan't be determined

    Answer: (E) Can't be determined

    denied = jh (in sentences 1, 2 and 3); justice = hj (1, 3 and 4); delayed = bv (1 and 3); so is = kr and trial = jc. public = nh (2 and 4). police and safety share rt and tf, and must and prevail share xt and bo, in some order. justice = hj, but prevail may be xt or bo, so the code cannot be determined.

  2. Q71.Which pair of words is coded as 'kr nh'?

    • ACan't be determined
    • Bpolice safety
    • Cpublic trial
    • Dis public
    • Epolice public

    Answer: (D) is public

    denied = jh (in sentences 1, 2 and 3); justice = hj (1, 3 and 4); delayed = bv (1 and 3); so is = kr and trial = jc. public = nh (2 and 4). police and safety share rt and tf, and must and prevail share xt and bo, in some order. kr = is and nh = public.

  3. Q72.If 'delayed prevail order' is written as 'bv bo ot', what is the code for 'must order'?

    • Abo xt
    • Bbv xt
    • Cxt jc
    • Dot bo
    • Eot xt

    Answer: (E) ot xt

    denied = jh (in sentences 1, 2 and 3); justice = hj (1, 3 and 4); delayed = bv (1 and 3); so is = kr and trial = jc. public = nh (2 and 4). police and safety share rt and tf, and must and prevail share xt and bo, in some order. delayed = bv, and prevail must be bo (one of xt/bo), so order = ot. Then must = xt. 'must order' = ot xt.

  4. Q73.Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct? I. public is coded as 'nh'. II. police can be coded as 'rt'. III. 'delayed trial' is coded as 'bv xt'.

    • ABoth I and II
    • BOnly II
    • COnly III
    • DBoth II and III
    • EAll I, II and III

    Answer: (C) Only III

    denied = jh (in sentences 1, 2 and 3); justice = hj (1, 3 and 4); delayed = bv (1 and 3); so is = kr and trial = jc. public = nh (2 and 4). police and safety share rt and tf, and must and prevail share xt and bo, in some order. I is correct and II is possible. III is wrong because trial = jc, so 'delayed trial' = bv jc.

  5. Q74.What is the code for the word 'trial'?

    • Ajc
    • Btf
    • Cjh
    • Dhj
    • Ebv

    Answer: (A) jc

    denied = jh (in sentences 1, 2 and 3); justice = hj (1, 3 and 4); delayed = bv (1 and 3); so is = kr and trial = jc. public = nh (2 and 4). police and safety share rt and tf, and must and prevail share xt and bo, in some order. trial = jc.

Reasoning - Puzzle (Q75–79)

  1. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live in a four-storey building. The ground floor is floor 1, the floor above it is floor 2, and so on up to floor 4. Each floor has two flats: flat-A on the west and flat-B on the east. Flat-A of each floor is directly above flat-A of the floor below, and likewise for flat-B. Exactly one person lives in each flat. G lives in a flat-B. H lives in the flat immediately west of F's flat (on the same floor). H and A live in the same type of flat, and A lives on a higher floor than H. C and B live on the same floor. B lives on a floor below D, and B and D live in the same type of flat. E lives on a floor above G, but not in the same type of flat as G. Exactly one floor lies between G's floor and F's floor. E lives on an even-numbered floor.

    Q75.Who lives in flat-A on the 3rd floor?

    • AD
    • BA
    • CC
    • DB
    • ENone of these

    Answer: (B) A

    G is in flat-B and E is above G in flat-A, on an even floor. H is in flat-A with F east of him on the same floor, and A is above H in flat-A. G and F are two floors apart. If G were on floor 3, F would be on floor 1 and E on floor 4; then A takes flat-A of floor 3. B and D share a flat type with B lower, and C is on B's floor, which places C and B on floor 2 and D in flat-B of floor 4. Every other placement breaks a clue. Final arrangement (flat-A, flat-B): floor 4: E, D; floor 3: A, G; floor 2: C, B; floor 1: H, F. Flat-A of floor 3 is A.

  2. Q76.Who lives immediately above G, in the same type of flat as G?

    • AB
    • BC
    • CA
    • DD
    • ENone of these

    Answer: (D) D

    G is in flat-B and E is above G in flat-A, on an even floor. H is in flat-A with F east of him on the same floor, and A is above H in flat-A. G and F are two floors apart. If G were on floor 3, F would be on floor 1 and E on floor 4; then A takes flat-A of floor 3. B and D share a flat type with B lower, and C is on B's floor, which places C and B on floor 2 and D in flat-B of floor 4. Every other placement breaks a clue. Final arrangement (flat-A, flat-B): floor 4: E, D; floor 3: A, G; floor 2: C, B; floor 1: H, F. G is in flat-B of floor 3; flat-B of floor 4 is D.

  3. Q77.Who lives in flat-A on the 2nd floor?

    • AD
    • BH
    • CC
    • DE
    • ENone of these

    Answer: (C) C

    G is in flat-B and E is above G in flat-A, on an even floor. H is in flat-A with F east of him on the same floor, and A is above H in flat-A. G and F are two floors apart. If G were on floor 3, F would be on floor 1 and E on floor 4; then A takes flat-A of floor 3. B and D share a flat type with B lower, and C is on B's floor, which places C and B on floor 2 and D in flat-B of floor 4. Every other placement breaks a clue. Final arrangement (flat-A, flat-B): floor 4: E, D; floor 3: A, G; floor 2: C, B; floor 1: H, F. Flat-A of floor 2 is C.

  4. Q78.Who lives exactly between G and F in the same type of flat?

    • AD
    • BA
    • CB
    • DEither E or D
    • EE

    Answer: (C) B

    G is in flat-B and E is above G in flat-A, on an even floor. H is in flat-A with F east of him on the same floor, and A is above H in flat-A. G and F are two floors apart. If G were on floor 3, F would be on floor 1 and E on floor 4; then A takes flat-A of floor 3. B and D share a flat type with B lower, and C is on B's floor, which places C and B on floor 2 and D in flat-B of floor 4. Every other placement breaks a clue. Final arrangement (flat-A, flat-B): floor 4: E, D; floor 3: A, G; floor 2: C, B; floor 1: H, F. G (floor 3) and F (floor 1) are both in flat-B; flat-B of floor 2, between them, is B.

  5. Q79.Which of the following statements about the building is true?

    • AA lives on a floor above D
    • BE and H live on consecutive floors
    • CD lives to the west of E
    • DB and F live in the same type of flat
    • ED lives on a floor below F in the same type of flat

    Answer: (D) B and F live in the same type of flat

    G is in flat-B and E is above G in flat-A, on an even floor. H is in flat-A with F east of him on the same floor, and A is above H in flat-A. G and F are two floors apart. If G were on floor 3, F would be on floor 1 and E on floor 4; then A takes flat-A of floor 3. B and D share a flat type with B lower, and C is on B's floor, which places C and B on floor 2 and D in flat-B of floor 4. Every other placement breaks a clue. Final arrangement (flat-A, flat-B): floor 4: E, D; floor 3: A, G; floor 2: C, B; floor 1: H, F. B and F both live in flat-B. Each of the other statements is false.

Reasoning - Number Series (Q80–84)

  1. Study the following five three-digit numbers and answer the questions: 413 876 263 514 891

    Q80.If 1 is added to each number, how many of the resulting numbers will be odd?

    • ANone
    • BOne
    • CTwo
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (C) Two

    Adding 1 gives 414, 877, 264, 515, 892. Odd numbers: 877 and 515. So two.

  2. Q81.If the digits of each number are arranged in ascending order within the number, which original number becomes the smallest?

    • A413
    • B876
    • C263
    • D514
    • E891

    Answer: (A) 413

    Ascending digits give 134, 678, 236, 145, 189. The smallest is 134, which comes from 413.

  3. Q82.What is the product of the first digit of the third number from the left and the last digit of the second number from the right?

    • A20
    • B8
    • C15
    • D12
    • E24

    Answer: (B) 8

    Third from the left is 263 (first digit 2). Second from the right is 514 (last digit 4). 2 x 4 = 8.

  4. Q83.If all the even digits are removed from each number, which original number gives the highest value?

    • A413
    • B876
    • C263
    • D514
    • E891

    Answer: (E) 891

    Removing even digits gives 13, 7, 3, 15 and 91. The highest is 91, from 891.

  5. Q84.What is the sum of the highest digit of the third number from the left end and the second highest digit of the fourth number from the right end?

    • A26
    • B12
    • C13
    • D24
    • E15

    Answer: (C) 13

    Third from the left is 263; its highest digit is 6. Fourth from the right is 876; its second highest digit is 7. 6 + 7 = 13.

Reasoning - Blood Relation (Q85–87)

  1. A family of three generations has nine members: A, B, D, H, J, K, M, N and U. There are exactly three married couples. A is the unmarried sister of U, who is married to K. D is the son-in-law of K's mother. M is a parent of B, and B is a child of D. N is the grandfather of both B and H. J is married to N; J and N have exactly two children, and M is not their daughter-in-law. J's son has a child. K, H and B are of the same gender.

    Q85.How many female members are there in the family?

    • AThree
    • BFour
    • CFive
    • DSix
    • ENone of the above

    Answer: (B) Four

    N (a grandfather) and his wife J form the oldest generation, so K's mother can only be J. D is her son-in-law, so D is male and is married to M, who is K's sister. So J and N's two children are K and M. M is not their daughter-in-law, so M is their daughter (female) and the son with a child must be K (male). K's wife U is the daughter-in-law and H is the child of K and U. K, H and B are male. Females: A, U, M and J. So there are four females.

  2. Q86.How is U's child related to B?

    • AUncle
    • BBrother
    • CSister
    • DCousin
    • ENone of the above

    Answer: (D) Cousin

    N (a grandfather) and his wife J form the oldest generation, so K's mother can only be J. D is her son-in-law, so D is male and is married to M, who is K's sister. So J and N's two children are K and M. M is not their daughter-in-law, so M is their daughter (female) and the son with a child must be K (male). K's wife U is the daughter-in-law and H is the child of K and U. K, H and B are male. Females: A, U, M and J. U's child is H. H's father K and B's mother M are siblings, so H is B's cousin.

  3. Q87.Who among the following is a child of K?

    • AB
    • BH
    • CM
    • DJ
    • ECannot be determined

    Answer: (B) H

    N (a grandfather) and his wife J form the oldest generation, so K's mother can only be J. D is her son-in-law, so D is male and is married to M, who is K's sister. So J and N's two children are K and M. M is not their daughter-in-law, so M is their daughter (female) and the son with a child must be K (male). K's wife U is the daughter-in-law and H is the child of K and U. K, H and B are male. Females: A, U, M and J. H is the child of K and U.

Reasoning - Alphabet Test (Q88–88)

  1. Q88.How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'BUTTERFLY', each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as there are between them in the English alphabet?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • EMore than four

    Answer: (C) Three

    Letters: B U T T E R F L Y. The pairs are U-T (U and the first T are adjacent in the word and in the alphabet), T-R (the second T and R have one letter, E, between them in the word, and T and R have one letter, S, between them in the alphabet) and T-Y (the second T and Y have four letters, E, R, F and L, between them in the word, and U, V, W and X between them in the alphabet). So three pairs.

Reasoning - Puzzle (Q89–93)

  1. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born on the same date of the same year, but in different months: January, March, April, June, July, August, November and December (not necessarily in this order). Exactly one person was born in each of these months. H was born in a 30-day month that comes after April. Exactly three persons were born between H and D. Exactly three calendar months lie between the birth months of D and C. A was born after C. The number of persons born before A equals the number born after F. Exactly two persons were born between F and E. B was born after E.

    Q89.Who was born in June?

    • AH
    • BA
    • CC
    • DB
    • EE

    Answer: (E) E

    H is in June or November. If H were in June, D (with three persons between them) would be in December, and C (with three calendar months between it and D) in August; then A must be in November, F in March and E in July, leaving no month after E for B. So H is in November and D in April; C is in August (May, June and July lie between). A is after C and, with F at the mirror position, A = December and F = January. E is three places after F: June. B is after E: July. G takes March. Order: F (Jan), G (Mar), D (Apr), E (Jun), B (Jul), C (Aug), H (Nov), A (Dec). E was born in June.

  2. Q90.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their birth months and so form a group. Who does not belong to that group?

    • AD
    • BF
    • CA
    • DG
    • EC

    Answer: (A) D

    H is in June or November. If H were in June, D (with three persons between them) would be in December, and C (with three calendar months between it and D) in August; then A must be in November, F in March and E in July, leaving no month after E for B. So H is in November and D in April; C is in August (May, June and July lie between). A is after C and, with F at the mirror position, A = December and F = January. E is three places after F: June. B is after E: July. G takes March. Order: F (Jan), G (Mar), D (Apr), E (Jun), B (Jul), C (Aug), H (Nov), A (Dec). C (August), F (January), A (December) and G (March) were born in 31-day months; D (April) was born in a 30-day month.

  3. Q91.In which month was G born?

    • AMay
    • BJuly
    • CMarch
    • DJune
    • EAugust

    Answer: (C) March

    H is in June or November. If H were in June, D (with three persons between them) would be in December, and C (with three calendar months between it and D) in August; then A must be in November, F in March and E in July, leaving no month after E for B. So H is in November and D in April; C is in August (May, June and July lie between). A is after C and, with F at the mirror position, A = December and F = January. E is three places after F: June. B is after E: July. G takes March. Order: F (Jan), G (Mar), D (Apr), E (Jun), B (Jul), C (Aug), H (Nov), A (Dec). G was born in March.

  4. Q92.How many persons were born between F and H?

    • ANone
    • BTwo
    • CFive
    • DFour
    • EThree

    Answer: (C) Five

    H is in June or November. If H were in June, D (with three persons between them) would be in December, and C (with three calendar months between it and D) in August; then A must be in November, F in March and E in July, leaving no month after E for B. So H is in November and D in April; C is in August (May, June and July lie between). A is after C and, with F at the mirror position, A = December and F = January. E is three places after F: June. B is after E: July. G takes March. Order: F (Jan), G (Mar), D (Apr), E (Jun), B (Jul), C (Aug), H (Nov), A (Dec). Between F (January) and H (November): G, D, E, B and C, i.e. five persons.

  5. Q93.If the persons are rearranged in alphabetical order from the first month (January) to the last (December), how many persons will remain in their original positions?

    • ANone
    • BOne
    • CTwo
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (A) None

    H is in June or November. If H were in June, D (with three persons between them) would be in December, and C (with three calendar months between it and D) in August; then A must be in November, F in March and E in July, leaving no month after E for B. So H is in November and D in April; C is in August (May, June and July lie between). A is after C and, with F at the mirror position, A = December and F = January. E is three places after F: June. B is after E: July. G takes March. Order: F (Jan), G (Mar), D (Apr), E (Jun), B (Jul), C (Aug), H (Nov), A (Dec). Alphabetical order A to H against F, G, D, E, B, C, H, A: no position matches, so none.

Reasoning - Syllogism (Q94–96)

  1. Q94.In the question below, some statements are followed by two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Only a few magnets are poles. All magnets are materials. Some materials are metals. Conclusions: I. All materials being poles is a possibility. II. Some magnets are not poles.

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
    • EBoth conclusions I and II follow

    Answer: (B) Only conclusion II follows

    'Only a few magnets are poles' means some magnets are poles and some magnets are not poles, so II follows. Those magnets that are not poles are materials, so some materials are definitely not poles; hence 'all materials being poles' is not possible and I does not follow.

  2. Q95.In the question below, some statements are followed by two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: All doors are tables. Some tables are not wooden. Only wooden things are plastic. Conclusions: I. All plastic things being doors is a possibility. II. Some wooden things are not tables.

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
    • EBoth conclusions I and II follow

    Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows

    'Only wooden things are plastic' means every plastic thing is wooden. Nothing stops all plastic things from lying inside doors (doors can be wooden, since only some tables are not wooden), so I is a valid possibility. Wooden things may all be tables, so II does not definitely follow.

  3. Q96.In the question below, some statements are followed by two conclusions. Take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow. Statements: Only a few notes are important. All notes are papers. No paper is a file. Conclusions: I. Some notes are not files. II. No important thing is a file.

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DNeither conclusion I nor II follows
    • EBoth conclusions I and II follow

    Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows

    All notes are papers and no paper is a file, so no note is a file; hence some notes are not files and I follows. Important things that are not notes may still be files, so II does not follow.

Reasoning - Puzzle (Q97–100)

  1. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W have different heights. R is taller than V but shorter than S. T is taller than Q. Exactly three persons are shorter than V. In the order of height, Q is three places below R (for example, if R were fifth tallest, Q would be eighth tallest). R is 168 cm tall, and the heights of R and W add up to 320 cm. T is shorter than R but taller than W. The number of persons taller than W equals the number of persons shorter than P. S is not shorter than P.

    Q97.Who is the third shortest person?

    • AU
    • BQ
    • CS
    • DP
    • EV

    Answer: (B) Q

    Rank from shortest (1) to tallest (8). V is 4th. R is above V and Q is three places below R; with T between W and R and T above Q, R must be 6th, giving Q = 3rd and T = 5th. W is below T, so W is 1st or 2nd; 'taller than W = shorter than P' puts P at 7th when W is 2nd (W at 1st would need P at 8th, but S must not be shorter than P and is above R). So W = 2nd, P = 7th, S = 8th and U = 1st. Shortest to tallest: U, W, Q, V, T, R, P, S. W = 320 - 168 = 152 cm. The third shortest is Q.

  2. Q98.How many persons are taller than P?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • EFive

    Answer: (A) One

    Rank from shortest (1) to tallest (8). V is 4th. R is above V and Q is three places below R; with T between W and R and T above Q, R must be 6th, giving Q = 3rd and T = 5th. W is below T, so W is 1st or 2nd; 'taller than W = shorter than P' puts P at 7th when W is 2nd (W at 1st would need P at 8th, but S must not be shorter than P and is above R). So W = 2nd, P = 7th, S = 8th and U = 1st. Shortest to tallest: U, W, Q, V, T, R, P, S. W = 320 - 168 = 152 cm. Only S is taller than P.

  3. Q99.Which of the following statements about the heights is true?

    • AW is the fourth shortest person.
    • BQ is taller than R.
    • CExactly two persons are taller than P.
    • DP is not taller than V.
    • EU is the shortest person.

    Answer: (E) U is the shortest person.

    Rank from shortest (1) to tallest (8). V is 4th. R is above V and Q is three places below R; with T between W and R and T above Q, R must be 6th, giving Q = 3rd and T = 5th. W is below T, so W is 1st or 2nd; 'taller than W = shorter than P' puts P at 7th when W is 2nd (W at 1st would need P at 8th, but S must not be shorter than P and is above R). So W = 2nd, P = 7th, S = 8th and U = 1st. Shortest to tallest: U, W, Q, V, T, R, P, S. W = 320 - 168 = 152 cm. U is the shortest; the other statements are false.

  4. Q100.Which of the following could be the height of T?

    • A170 cm
    • B148 cm
    • C172 cm
    • D160 cm
    • E151 cm

    Answer: (D) 160 cm

    Rank from shortest (1) to tallest (8). V is 4th. R is above V and Q is three places below R; with T between W and R and T above Q, R must be 6th, giving Q = 3rd and T = 5th. W is below T, so W is 1st or 2nd; 'taller than W = shorter than P' puts P at 7th when W is 2nd (W at 1st would need P at 8th, but S must not be shorter than P and is above R). So W = 2nd, P = 7th, S = 8th and U = 1st. Shortest to tallest: U, W, Q, V, T, R, P, S. W = 320 - 168 = 152 cm. T is shorter than R (168 cm) and taller than V and Q, who are themselves taller than W (152 cm). So T lies strictly between about 154 cm and 168 cm; of the options only 160 cm fits.

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