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IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelims Memory-Based Paper 4 October Shift 1 with Answers

Exam date
4 October 2025
Shift
Shift 19:00 AM
Source
Memory-based (candidate recall)

IBPS does not publish question papers or answer keys. These papers are rebuilt from candidates' recall of the shift, written fresh and fully re-checked.

Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.

English - Reading Comprehension (Q1–9)

  1. Note: This paper is recreated from candidate recall; IBPS does not release official question papers. Every question re-verified by BookOfExams. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. In every modern army, dogs do far more than keep soldiers company. They track intruders, guard camps, carry messages and, above all, sniff out hidden explosives in places where machines often fail. Their keen senses, steady loyalty and long months of preparation make them valuable members of a unit. They are not just companions on the sidelines; they stand on the front line, alert when danger is near and quick to act when every second matters. One such dog was Snowy, a lively animal whose bright white coat gave him his name. From his first day at the training centre, his watchful eyes and quick grasp of new tasks caught the attention of the instructors. Snowy was trained at a special military school, where he learned to follow complex commands, detect explosives and move with ease over rough and icy ground. He was taught to stay calm under pressure, respond to silent hand signals and work as one with his handler. The aim of this training was not mere obedience; it was to build sharp instincts, discipline and trust. After training, Snowy was posted to a remote border outpost, where he soon became a favourite of the soldiers. His handler depended on his senses during night patrols. On one bitterly cold night, while the tired soldiers rested, Snowy's ears suddenly __________. He had sensed movement near the fence. Without a moment's delay he barked loudly and dashed towards the perimeter, alerting the guards, who caught several men attempting to slip across the border unseen. That night Snowy proved himself a true sentinel: watchful, fearless and devoted. Snowy also shared a deep bond with the men around him. He seemed to sense when a soldier was worried and would rest his head quietly on his knee. He joined in their celebrations with a wagging tail and sat silently beside those who missed their families. For the men of the unit, Snowy was never just a working dog; he was a faithful companion, a dependable teammate and a true hero.

    Q1.Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to 'trained' as used in the passage?

    • Adisplayed
    • Bexcused
    • Caimed
    • Dburdened
    • Eschooled

    Answer: (E) schooled

    In 'Snowy was trained at a special military school, where he learned...', trained means taught or schooled. 'Aimed' is the sense used for pointing a weapon (to train a gun on something), which does not fit here.

  2. Q2.Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to 'just' as used in the passage?

    • Afair
    • Brecently
    • Cmerely
    • Drightful
    • Eexactly

    Answer: (C) merely

    In 'They are not just companions on the sidelines', just means only or merely. The other options are different senses of just (fair, rightful, exactly, a moment ago).

  3. Q3.Which of the following best describes the role of military dogs as presented in the passage?

    • AThey are used chiefly in ceremonies and parades.
    • BThey are deployed only when machines are unavailable.
    • CThey are valued mostly for their ability to obey simple commands.
    • DThey are kept mainly to lift the mood of soldiers in remote posts.
    • EThey are skilled working members of a unit who help detect and respond to real threats.

    Answer: (E) They are skilled working members of a unit who help detect and respond to real threats.

    The first paragraph says dogs track intruders, guard camps and sniff out explosives, and calls them valuable members of a unit who stand on the front line. Companionship and obedience are mentioned only as lesser or partial aspects, so the statement that they are skilled working members of a unit who help detect and respond to real threats captures the role best.

  4. Q4.Which of the following fits best in the blank in the third paragraph: 'Snowy's ears suddenly __________'?

    • Acalmed down
    • Bturned away
    • Cpricked up
    • Ddrooped down
    • Egave way

    Answer: (C) pricked up

    The next sentence says he had sensed movement, so his ears rose in alertness. 'Pricked up' is the idiom for ears rising when an animal becomes alert; the other options suggest relaxing or losing attention.

  5. Q5.Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

    • ASnowy was used by his handler during night patrols.
    • BSnowy's training included lessons on comforting worried soldiers.
    • CSnowy was taught to respond to silent hand signals.
    • DSnowy supported the soldiers both on duty and emotionally.
    • ESnowy's alert helped the guards catch men slipping across the border.

    Answer: (B) Snowy's training included lessons on comforting worried soldiers.

    The passage lists what Snowy learned at the military school (commands, detecting explosives, moving over rough ground, silent signals, teamwork). Comforting worried soldiers is described as something he did on his own at the outpost, not part of his training. All other statements are stated in the passage.

  6. Q6.Which of the following statements is correct according to the passage?

    • AMilitary dogs are used mainly to carry messages between distant units.
    • BSnowy's bond with the soldiers was built mainly through training drills.
    • CSnowy personally captured several armed intruders at the fence.
    • DSnowy adapted to harsh terrain and acted on his own initiative at a critical moment.
    • ESnowy needed constant supervision because his behaviour was unpredictable.

    Answer: (D) Snowy adapted to harsh terrain and acted on his own initiative at a critical moment.

    Snowy learned to move over rough and icy ground, and on the cold night he barked and ran to the fence without a moment's delay. He alerted the guards, who caught the intruders, so he did not capture anyone himself; the other statements are not supported.

  7. Q7.Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to 'sentinel' as used in the passage?

    • Aspectator
    • Btraveller
    • Cwatchman
    • Drebel
    • Eofficer

    Answer: (C) watchman

    A sentinel is a guard who keeps watch, and the passage itself explains it as watchful, fearless and devoted. Watchman has the same meaning.

  8. Q8.Why is the incident on the cold night important in the passage?

    • AIt shows that the outpost had no fence or guards.
    • BIt is the first time Snowy disobeyed his handler.
    • CIt shows that dogs become restless in very cold weather.
    • DIt shows how poorly trained dogs can cause panic in a camp.
    • EIt shows how an alert, trained dog can sense danger before the human guards do.

    Answer: (E) It shows how an alert, trained dog can sense danger before the human guards do.

    While the soldiers rested, Snowy sensed movement and alerted the guards, who then stopped the intruders. The incident illustrates the value of a trained dog's senses; nothing suggests disobedience, panic or a missing fence.

  9. Q9.Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?

    • AMilitary dogs are prepared for both physical tasks and quick reactions.
    • BSnowy was posted to the border mainly because of the colour of his coat.
    • CThe writer uses Snowy's story to show the value of military dogs.
    • DSnowy acted without delay when he sensed movement near the fence.
    • ESnowy seemed able to sense when a soldier was worried.

    Answer: (B) Snowy was posted to the border mainly because of the colour of his coat.

    His white coat only explains his name. The passage gives no link between the coat and his posting, so the statement about his posting is incorrect; the others are supported by the passage.

English - Cloze Test (Q10–15)

  1. In the following passage there are blanks, each denoted by a letter. Choose the most appropriate word for each blank. Doctors and historians in Country X have recently ____(A)____ an important step by bringing modern science to the study of the distant past. During a/an ____(B)____ in a remote desert area, archaeologists dug up ruins thought to be over two millennia old. Buried among broken pots and tools was an almost complete human skeleton. The find opened the door to a rare ____(C)____ between archaeologists and doctors. The team used advanced imaging and 3D modelling to ____(D)____ the body of the ancient person bone by bone. The study showed worn joints, healed fractures and tooth patterns that hinted at the person's diet and way of life. Some marks on the bones even suggested simple surgery, pointing to a surprising level of medical knowledge in ancient times. The work offered valuable ____(E)____ not only into old healing practices but also into inherited traits and diseases that matter today. It showed how ancient ____(F)____ can guide modern research.

    Q10.Which word fits blank (A)?

    • Ashifted
    • Bgiven
    • Cbuilt
    • Dtaken
    • Eproduced

    Answer: (D) taken

    The fixed expression is 'take a step'; with 'have recently', the form is 'have taken an important step'. One does not give, build, produce or shift a step.

  2. Q11.Which word fits blank (B)?

    • Aexecution
    • Bimplementation
    • Cproduction
    • Delevation
    • Eexcavation

    Answer: (E) excavation

    Archaeologists uncover ruins while digging at a site, which is an excavation. The article 'an' also suits excavation. The other words do not describe digging.

  3. Q12.Which word fits blank (C)?

    • Atogetherness
    • Bjoint
    • Cmerge
    • Dcollaboration
    • Econtinuation

    Answer: (D) collaboration

    After 'a rare' we need a noun meaning working together, followed by 'between archaeologists and doctors'. Collaboration fits. Merge is a verb, joint is an adjective or a body part, and togetherness means emotional closeness, not joint work.

  4. Q13.Which word fits blank (D)?

    • Areconstruct
    • Binitiate
    • Cchain
    • Drevolve
    • Eentangle

    Answer: (A) reconstruct

    Imaging and 3D modelling were used to rebuild the body bone by bone, so reconstruct fits. The other verbs make no sense with 'the body of the ancient person'.

  5. Q14.Which word fits blank (E)?

    • Apoint
    • Bperceiving
    • Cinsights
    • Dunderstands
    • Eintuition

    Answer: (C) insights

    The collocation is 'valuable insights into' something. Perceiving and understands are verb forms, and intuition and point do not take 'into' here.

  6. Q15.Which word fits blank (F)?

    • Aexcesses
    • Bremains
    • Cdispose
    • Druin
    • Edecayed

    Answer: (B) remains

    The skeleton and ruins are ancient remains, and the plural verb 'can guide' needs a plural noun. Decayed is an adjective, dispose a verb, ruin is singular and excesses does not fit the meaning.

English - Word Usage (Q16–16)

  1. Q16.Read the word and the three sentences below. Choose the option that lists the sentence(s) in which the word is used correctly in meaning and grammar. DISCORD (I) Growing discord among the partners eventually led them to close the firm. (II) The soft discord of the flute filled the hall with a soothing calm. (III) Years of discord between the two neighbouring states slowed trade in the region.

    • AOnly (I)
    • BOnly (II)
    • CBoth (I) and (III)
    • DBoth (II) and (III)
    • EAll of these

    Answer: (C) Both (I) and (III)

    Discord means disagreement or conflict (in music, a harsh clash of sounds). (I) and (III) use it for conflict correctly. (II) is wrong because a discord is harsh and unpleasant, not soft and soothing.

English - Sentence Improvement (Q17–20)

  1. Q17.In the sentence below, the part in quotes may be incorrect. Choose the option that should replace it to make the sentence grammatically correct. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. She could not 'restrained her excitement' upon hearing the news.

    • Arestrain her excitement
    • Brestraining her excitement
    • Crestrains her excitement
    • Dbe restrain her excitement
    • ENo replacement required

    Answer: (A) restrain her excitement

    A modal verb such as could (not) is followed by the base form of the verb, so 'could not restrain her excitement' is correct.

  2. Q18.In the sentence below, the part in quotes may be incorrect. Choose the option that should replace it to make the sentence grammatically correct. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. The leader attempted 'to curbing the growing unrest' among the workers.

    • Ato curb the growing unrest
    • Bcurbing of the growing unrest
    • Cto curbed the growing unrest
    • Dfor curb the growing unrest
    • ENo replacement required

    Answer: (A) to curb the growing unrest

    Attempt is followed by the to-infinitive, which is to plus the base form: 'attempted to curb'. 'To curbing' and 'to curbed' are not correct infinitives.

  3. Q19.In the sentence below, the part in quotes may be incorrect. Choose the option that should replace it to make the sentence grammatically correct. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. He tried 'to mask his nervousness' before the interview began.

    • Amasking of his nervousness
    • Bto masked his nervousness
    • Cfor mask his nervousness
    • Dto masks his nervousness
    • ENo replacement required

    Answer: (E) No replacement required

    'Tried to mask his nervousness' is correct: try takes the to-infinitive with the base form mask. No change is needed.

  4. Q20.In the sentence below, the part in quotes may be incorrect. Choose the option that should replace it to make the sentence grammatically correct. If no change is needed, choose 'No replacement required'. Despite the long delay, she managed 'tempering her frustration' in front of the clients.

    • Ato temper her frustration
    • Btemper her frustration
    • Cto tempered her frustration
    • Dfor tempering her frustration
    • ENo replacement required

    Answer: (A) to temper her frustration

    Manage takes the to-infinitive: 'managed to temper her frustration'. It is not followed by an -ing form or a bare verb.

English - Error Spotting (Q21–25)

  1. Q21.Read the sentence and find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. (Ignore punctuation.) The district judge have (A)/ called for a probe (B)/ into the missing funds (C)/ reported last month. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (A) A

    The subject 'the district judge' is singular, so the verb should be 'has called', not 'have called'. The error is in part A.

  2. Q22.Read the sentence and find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. (Ignore punctuation.) The reporter has being (A)/ covering the floods (B)/ from the affected district (C)/ for over a week now. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (A) A

    The present perfect continuous is has been + -ing: 'has been covering'. 'Has being' is wrong, so the error is in part A.

  3. Q23.Read the sentence and find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. (Ignore punctuation.) The city is (A)/ planning to installs (B)/ more charging stations (C)/ before the next fiscal year. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (B) B

    After 'to', the base form of the verb is used: 'planning to install'. 'To installs' is wrong, so the error is in part B.

  4. Q24.Read the sentence and find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. (Ignore punctuation.) Many citizens (A)/ voiced their worries (B)/ about how the new rule will affects (C)/ their online privacy. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (C) C

    After the modal 'will', the base form is used: 'will affect'. The error is in part C.

  5. Q25.Read the sentence and find the part that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. (Ignore punctuation.) The power outage (A)/ was so widespread (B)/ that it disrupted train services (C)/ across three states yesterday. (D)

    • AA
    • BB
    • CC
    • DD
    • ENo error

    Answer: (E) No error

    The sentence is correct: singular subject with 'was', the 'so ... that' structure, and past tense 'disrupted' matching 'yesterday'. No error.

English - Word Rearrangement (Q26–30)

  1. Q26.In the sentence below, three words marked (A), (B) and (C) may be in the wrong places. Choose the order in which these words should appear, from left to right, to make the sentence meaningful and correct. If the sentence is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. Urban demand (A) often endangers heritage (B) sites, prompting residents to expansion (C) stronger conservation laws.

    • AACB
    • BBAC
    • CCAB
    • DCBA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (D) CBA

    Correct sentence: 'Urban expansion often endangers heritage sites, prompting residents to demand stronger conservation laws.' The words in order are expansion (C), heritage (B), demand (A), so CBA.

  2. Q27.In the sentence below, three words marked (A), (B) and (C) may be in the wrong places. Choose the order in which these words should appear, from left to right, to make the sentence meaningful and correct. If the sentence is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. Trade economies (A) among the largest tensions (B) have broken supply chains, pushing firms to widen their sourcing (C) options.

    • AACB
    • BBAC
    • CCAB
    • DCBA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (B) BAC

    Correct sentence: 'Trade tensions among the largest economies have broken supply chains, pushing firms to widen their sourcing options.' The order is tensions (B), economies (A), sourcing (C), so BAC.

  3. Q28.In the sentence below, three words marked (A), (B) and (C) may be in the wrong places. Choose the order in which these words should appear, from left to right, to make the sentence meaningful and correct. If the sentence is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. Warmer seas are habitats (A) coral shifts (B), causing damaging (C) in where fish species live.

    • AACB
    • BBAC
    • CCAB
    • DCBA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (C) CAB

    Correct sentence: 'Warmer seas are damaging coral habitats, causing shifts in where fish species live.' The order is damaging (C), habitats (A), shifts (B), so CAB.

  4. Q29.In the sentence below, three words marked (A), (B) and (C) may be in the wrong places. Choose the order in which these words should appear, from left to right, to make the sentence meaningful and correct. If the sentence is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. Although voter turnout (A) increased in the recent election, misinformation still behaviour (B) public perception and voter influenced (C).

    • AACB
    • BBAC
    • CCAB
    • DCBA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (A) ACB

    Correct sentence: 'Although voter turnout increased in the recent election, misinformation still influenced public perception and voter behaviour.' Turnout (A) stays, then influenced (C), then behaviour (B), so ACB.

  5. Q30.In the sentence below, three words marked (A), (B) and (C) may be in the wrong places. Choose the order in which these words should appear, from left to right, to make the sentence meaningful and correct. If the sentence is already correct, choose 'No rearrangement required'. Heavy monsoon (A) rains flooded several low-lying (B) districts, forcing officials to evacuate (C) thousands of residents.

    • AACB
    • BBAC
    • CCAB
    • DCBA
    • ENo rearrangement required

    Answer: (E) No rearrangement required

    The sentence already reads correctly: heavy monsoon rains, low-lying districts, officials had to evacuate residents. Swapping any of the marked words breaks the meaning, so no rearrangement is required.

Quantitative Aptitude - Data Interpretation (Q31–40)

  1. The table shows the number of books in three languages (English, Hindi and Urdu) sold by two sellers, A and B. Seller | English | Hindi | Urdu A | 28 | 50 | 36 B | 55 | 54 | 32

    Q31.The number of English books sold by A and B together is what percentage of the Hindi books sold by A?

    • A100%
    • B166%
    • C150%
    • D66%
    • E120%

    Answer: (B) 166%

    English books by A and B = 28 + 55 = 83. Hindi books by A = 50. Required % = 83/50 x 100 = 166%.

  2. Q32.Seller X sold 25% more English books than A. What is the difference between the English books sold by X and the Hindi books sold by B?

    • A20
    • B16
    • C24
    • D22
    • E19

    Answer: (E) 19

    English books by X = 125% of 28 = 35. Hindi books by B = 54. Difference = 54 - 35 = 19.

  3. Q33.What is the ratio of Hindi books sold by B to Urdu books sold by A?

    • A3:2
    • B5:2
    • C2:3
    • D2:1
    • E4:3

    Answer: (A) 3:2

    Hindi by B : Urdu by A = 54 : 36 = 3 : 2.

  4. Q34.What is the average number of books sold by B across the three languages?

    • A49
    • B44
    • C47
    • D42
    • E46

    Answer: (C) 47

    Books sold by B = 55 + 54 + 32 = 141. Average = 141/3 = 47.

  5. Q35.What is the difference between the total number of books sold by A and by B?

    • A20
    • B16
    • C18
    • D27
    • E32

    Answer: (D) 27

    Total by A = 28 + 50 + 36 = 114. Total by B = 55 + 54 + 32 = 141. Difference = 141 - 114 = 27.

  6. A line graph shows the number of people who visited four malls, A, B, C and D, on a particular day. The values read from the graph are: Mall | A | B | C | D Visitors | 220 | 340 | 280 | 420

    Q36.What is the ratio of visitors to mall A to visitors to mall C?

    • A14:11
    • B12:13
    • C11:21
    • D12:19
    • E11:14

    Answer: (E) 11:14

    A : C = 220 : 280 = 11 : 14.

  7. Q37.What is the average number of visitors to malls A, B and C?

    • A320
    • B280
    • C300
    • D270
    • E260

    Answer: (B) 280

    Total = 220 + 340 + 280 = 840. Average = 840/3 = 280.

  8. Q38.The number of visitors to mall B is approximately what percentage of the visitors to mall D?

    • A70.95%
    • B123.53%
    • C85.71%
    • D80.95%
    • E76.19%

    Answer: (D) 80.95%

    Required % = 340/420 x 100 = 80.95% (approx.).

  9. Q39.In mall C, the ratio of male to female visitors is 3:1. How many male visitors did mall C have?

    • A180
    • B132
    • C210
    • D120
    • E160

    Answer: (C) 210

    Males = 3/(3+1) x 280 = 210.

  10. Q40.The ratio of visitors to mall D and a fifth mall E is 4:5. What is the difference between the visitors to mall E and mall A?

    • A305
    • B316
    • C320
    • D277
    • E325

    Answer: (A) 305

    Visitors to E = 420 x 5/4 = 525. Difference from A = 525 - 220 = 305.

Quantitative Aptitude - Simplification (Q41–52)

  1. Q41.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 784 + 1297 - 613 = ?

    • A1342
    • B1086
    • C1468
    • D1454
    • E1338

    Answer: (C) 1468

    784 + 1297 = 2081; 2081 - 613 = 1468.

  2. Q42.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? ? = 225 ÷ 45 ÷ 5 × 75

    • A75
    • B90
    • C25
    • D15
    • E50

    Answer: (A) 75

    Work left to right: 225 ÷ 45 = 5; 5 ÷ 5 = 1; 1 × 75 = 75.

  3. Q43.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 7^? = 343 ÷ 512 × 64 × 56 ÷ 49 (here 7^? means 7 raised to the power ?)

    • A3
    • B2
    • C5
    • D4
    • E1

    Answer: (B) 2

    343 ÷ 512 × 64 = 343/8; 343/8 × 56 = 2401; 2401 ÷ 49 = 49. So 7^? = 49 = 7^2, hence ? = 2.

  4. Q44.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (120 + 39) ÷ (12 - 6) = ?

    • A22.5
    • B23.5
    • C21.5
    • D24.5
    • E26.5

    Answer: (E) 26.5

    (120 + 39) = 159 and (12 - 6) = 6. 159 ÷ 6 = 26.5.

  5. Q45.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (3080 + 6160) ÷ ? = 330

    • A29
    • B26
    • C22
    • D28
    • E18

    Answer: (D) 28

    3080 + 6160 = 9240. ? = 9240 ÷ 330 = 28.

  6. Q46.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 144 - (10800 ÷ 36) + ?² = 100 (? is positive)

    • A18
    • B16
    • C10
    • D15
    • E9

    Answer: (B) 16

    10800 ÷ 36 = 300. So 144 - 300 + ?² = 100, giving ?² = 256 and ? = 16.

  7. Q47.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (3/5 of √1225) ÷ (1/3 of ∛729) = ? - 2

    • A10
    • B7
    • C15
    • D18
    • E9

    Answer: (E) 9

    √1225 = 35 and 3/5 of 35 = 21. ∛729 = 9 and 1/3 of 9 = 3. 21 ÷ 3 = 7, so ? - 2 = 7 and ? = 9.

  8. Q48.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 5/8 of 160% of ? = √225 × 4

    • A70
    • B50
    • C60
    • D80
    • E40

    Answer: (C) 60

    √225 × 4 = 15 × 4 = 60. 5/8 × 160% = 5/8 × 8/5 = 1, so ? = 60.

  9. Q49.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 24 × ? = 225% of 2400

    • A225
    • B81
    • C144
    • D324
    • E121

    Answer: (A) 225

    225% of 2400 = 5400. ? = 5400 ÷ 24 = 225.

  10. Q50.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? [(40)² × 8] ÷ 50 ÷ 16 = ?

    • A12
    • B3
    • C15
    • D16
    • E9

    Answer: (D) 16

    40² × 8 = 1600 × 8 = 12800; 12800 ÷ 50 = 256; 256 ÷ 16 = 16.

  11. Q51.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (65% of 1700) ÷ 13 + 17² = ?

    • A374
    • B328
    • C413
    • D412
    • E339

    Answer: (A) 374

    65% of 1700 = 1105; 1105 ÷ 13 = 85; 17² = 289; 85 + 289 = 374.

  12. Q52.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (35% of 40 × 10) + 29 = ?

    • A196
    • B225
    • C144
    • D169
    • E81

    Answer: (D) 169

    35% of 40 = 14; 14 × 10 = 140; 140 + 29 = 169.

Quantitative Aptitude - Arithmetic (Q53–65)

  1. Q53.A vessel contains 56 litres of a milk and water mixture in the ratio 4:3. If Y litres of water are added, the ratio of milk to water becomes 8:7. Find Y.

    • A3
    • B6
    • C4
    • D2
    • E5

    Answer: (C) 4

    Milk = 4/7 x 56 = 32 L, water = 24 L. After adding Y litres of water: 32/(24 + Y) = 8/7, so 24 + Y = 28 and Y = 4.

  2. Q54.A started a business with Rs 2400. After 3 months, B joined with Rs X. At the end of the year, the profits of A and B were in the ratio 2:1. Find X.

    • A1200
    • B1000
    • C1800
    • D1500
    • E1600

    Answer: (E) 1600

    A's capital-months = 2400 x 12 = 28800. B's = 9X. 28800 : 9X = 2 : 1, so 9X = 14400 and X = 1600.

  3. Q55.Two positive integers A and B are in the ratio 3:2. If 16 is subtracted from A and added to B, the ratio becomes 19:26. Find the original value of A.

    • A40
    • B54
    • C48
    • D56
    • E42

    Answer: (B) 54

    Let A = 3x, B = 2x. (3x - 16)/(2x + 16) = 19/26, so 78x - 416 = 38x + 304, giving 40x = 720 and x = 18. A = 54.

  4. Q56.A sum of Rs 1600 earns Rs 840 as simple interest in 5 years at X% per annum. What simple interest would the same sum earn in 3 years at (X + 5)% per annum?

    • A966
    • B840
    • C650
    • D624
    • E744

    Answer: (E) 744

    X = 840 x 100/(1600 x 5) = 10.5%. New rate = 15.5%. Interest = 1600 x 15.5 x 3/100 = Rs 744.

  5. Q57.The area of a right-angled triangle is 180 cm² and its height is 24 cm. A square has a side 3 cm shorter than the triangle's base. What is the area of the square (in cm²)?

    • A169
    • B144
    • C100
    • D196
    • E121

    Answer: (B) 144

    1/2 x base x 24 = 180, so base = 15 cm. Side of square = 12 cm, area = 144 cm².

  6. Q58.The present ages of A and B are in the ratio 9:5. The ratio of A's age 5 years from now to B's age 5 years ago is 16:5. Find the sum of their ages 10 years from now.

    • A62
    • B42
    • C72
    • D77
    • E57

    Answer: (A) 62

    Let ages be 9a and 5a. (9a + 5)/(5a - 5) = 16/5, so 45a + 25 = 80a - 80, giving a = 3. Ages are 27 and 15. After 10 years: 37 + 25 = 62.

  7. Q59.A boat covers 192 km downstream in 4 hours and 210 km upstream in 5 hours. If its speed in still water is reduced by 20%, how far will it travel in still water in 3 hours?

    • A120 km
    • B116 km
    • C108 km
    • D110 km
    • E102 km

    Answer: (C) 108 km

    Downstream speed = 48 km/h, upstream = 42 km/h. Still-water speed = (48 + 42)/2 = 45 km/h. Reduced by 20%: 36 km/h. Distance in 3 h = 108 km.

  8. Q60.A man brought X chocolates to share equally among his 30 friends. Three friends did not come, so each of the others got 1 chocolate more than planned. Find X.

    • A300
    • B210
    • C240
    • D270
    • E180

    Answer: (D) 270

    X/27 - X/30 = 1, so X(30 - 27)/810 = 1, giving X = 270.

  9. Q61.On Sunday, 50 adults and children together visited a park. An adult ticket costs Rs 30 and a child ticket Rs 20. If the park collected Rs 1350, how many adults visited?

    • A25
    • B15
    • C20
    • D27
    • E35

    Answer: (E) 35

    Let adults = a. 30a + 20(50 - a) = 1350, so 10a = 350 and a = 35.

  10. Q62.A shopkeeper marks article A 25% above its cost price and gives a 10% discount, earning a profit of Rs 75. Article B cost him 40% more than article A. If he sells B at a 20% loss, find the selling price of B (in Rs).

    • A642
    • B672
    • C666
    • D698
    • E688

    Answer: (B) 672

    Selling price of A = 1.25 x 0.9 = 1.125 times CP, so profit = 12.5% of CP = 75 and CP of A = 600. CP of B = 840. SP of B = 80% of 840 = Rs 672.

  11. Q63.A car goes from City A to City B at 60 km/h and returns at 90 km/h. Find its average speed for the whole journey.

    • A72 km/h
    • B75 km/h
    • C78 km/h
    • D66 km/h
    • E60 km/h

    Answer: (A) 72 km/h

    For equal distances, average speed = 2 x 60 x 90/(60 + 90) = 10800/150 = 72 km/h.

  12. Q64.A, B and C together can finish a piece of work in 10 days, while B and C together take 25 days. How many days will A alone take (approximately)?

    • A12.5
    • B6.67
    • C16.67
    • D13.33
    • E8.33

    Answer: (C) 16.67

    A's one-day work = 1/10 - 1/25 = 3/50. A alone takes 50/3 = 16.67 days.

  13. Q65.In a college, 40% of the students took part in a science fair, 25% in sports and the rest in cultural events. If 315 students took part in cultural events, find the difference between the numbers in the science fair and in sports (each student took part in exactly one activity).

    • A130
    • B125
    • C120
    • D135
    • E115

    Answer: (D) 135

    Cultural = 100 - 40 - 25 = 35% = 315, so total = 900. Difference = (40 - 25)% of 900 = 135.

Reasoning - Puzzle (Q66–70)

  1. Eight boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are kept one above another in a single stack, not necessarily in this order. Exactly three boxes are between W and R. Exactly one box is between T and R, and T is above R. P is immediately below T and above W. Exactly two boxes are between P and V. Exactly two boxes are between V and S, and S is below V. Q is immediately above or immediately below W.

    Q66.How many boxes are above box U?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • EMore than four

    Answer: (C) Three

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). T is two places above R and P is just below T, so P is just above R. W is four places from R and below P, so W is four places below R; this needs R at 5 or 6. If R = 5, then W = 1, P = 6 and V (three places from P) = 3, leaving no room for S three places below V. So R = 6: T = 8, P = 7, W = 2, V = 4, S = 1, Q = 3 (next to W) and U = 5. Stack from top to bottom: T, P, R, U, V, Q, W, S. T, P and R are above U, so the answer is three.

  2. Q67.Which box is immediately above box Q?

    • ABox V
    • BBox R
    • CBox U
    • DBox S
    • EBox P

    Answer: (A) Box V

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). T is two places above R and P is just below T, so P is just above R. W is four places from R and below P, so W is four places below R; this needs R at 5 or 6. If R = 5, then W = 1, P = 6 and V (three places from P) = 3, leaving no room for S three places below V. So R = 6: T = 8, P = 7, W = 2, V = 4, S = 1, Q = 3 (next to W) and U = 5. Stack from top to bottom: T, P, R, U, V, Q, W, S. V is immediately above Q.

  3. Q68.Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Exactly two boxes are between Q and S. II. Box R is immediately above or below box U. III. Box T is at the top of the stack.

    • AOnly I
    • BOnly II
    • COnly I and II
    • DOnly II and III
    • EOnly I and III

    Answer: (D) Only II and III

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). T is two places above R and P is just below T, so P is just above R. W is four places from R and below P, so W is four places below R; this needs R at 5 or 6. If R = 5, then W = 1, P = 6 and V (three places from P) = 3, leaving no room for S three places below V. So R = 6: T = 8, P = 7, W = 2, V = 4, S = 1, Q = 3 (next to W) and U = 5. Stack from top to bottom: T, P, R, U, V, Q, W, S. I is false (only W is between Q and S). II is true (R is just above U). III is true.

  4. Q69.If the boxes are rearranged in alphabetical order from top to bottom (P at the top), how many boxes will remain in the same position?

    • ANone
    • BOne
    • CTwo
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (B) One

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). T is two places above R and P is just below T, so P is just above R. W is four places from R and below P, so W is four places below R; this needs R at 5 or 6. If R = 5, then W = 1, P = 6 and V (three places from P) = 3, leaving no room for S three places below V. So R = 6: T = 8, P = 7, W = 2, V = 4, S = 1, Q = 3 (next to W) and U = 5. Stack from top to bottom: T, P, R, U, V, Q, W, S. Alphabetical order from top: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W. Comparing with T, P, R, U, V, Q, W, S, only R (third from top) stays in place.

  5. Q70.Which box is fifth below box T?

    • ABox S
    • BBox U
    • CBox V
    • DBox W
    • EBox Q

    Answer: (E) Box Q

    Number the positions 1 (bottom) to 8 (top). T is two places above R and P is just below T, so P is just above R. W is four places from R and below P, so W is four places below R; this needs R at 5 or 6. If R = 5, then W = 1, P = 6 and V (three places from P) = 3, leaving no room for S three places below V. So R = 6: T = 8, P = 7, W = 2, V = 4, S = 1, Q = 3 (next to W) and U = 5. Stack from top to bottom: T, P, R, U, V, Q, W, S. Below T: P (1st), R (2nd), U (3rd), V (4th), Q (5th).

Reasoning - Inequality (Q71–73)

  1. Q71.In the question, assume the given statement to be true and decide which of the two conclusions definitely follows. Statement: K ≥ R > M = J > T ≤ F > H Conclusions: I. M > F II. R > T

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DBoth conclusions I and II follow
    • ENeither conclusion I nor II follows

    Answer: (B) Only conclusion II follows

    R > M = J > T gives R > T, so II follows. M and F are linked only through T (M > T and F ≥ T), so their relation is unknown; I does not follow.

  2. Q72.In the question, assume the given statement to be true and decide which of the two conclusions definitely follows. Statement: L ≤ T < W < Z = D ≤ P < G Conclusions: I. P > T II. L < Z

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DBoth conclusions I and II follow
    • ENeither conclusion I nor II follows

    Answer: (D) Both conclusions I and II follow

    T < W < Z = D ≤ P gives P > T, so I follows. L ≤ T < W < Z gives L < Z, so II follows.

  3. Q73.In the question, assume the given statement to be true and decide which of the two conclusions definitely follows. Statement: A ≤ M > Y > B ≥ X > C ≤ F Conclusions: I. Y > C II. M ≥ F

    • AOnly conclusion I follows
    • BOnly conclusion II follows
    • CEither conclusion I or II follows
    • DBoth conclusions I and II follow
    • ENeither conclusion I nor II follows

    Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows

    Y > B ≥ X > C gives Y > C, so I follows. M and F meet only through C with opposite signs (M > C, F ≥ C), so II does not follow.

Reasoning - Number Pair (Q74–74)

  1. Q74.How many pairs of digits are there in the number 37481265 that have as many digits between them in the number as there are between them in the number series (counting both forward and backward)?

    • ANone
    • BTwo
    • COne
    • DThree
    • EFour

    Answer: (B) Two

    Checking every pair: 1 and 2 are adjacent in the number and adjacent in the series; 6 and 5 are adjacent in the number and in the series. No other pair qualifies, so there are two pairs.

Reasoning - Direction Sense (Q75–77)

  1. Point A is 5 m west of point B. Point B is 9 m north of point C. Point D is 12 m east of point C. Point E is 15 m north of point D. Point F is 12 m west of point E. Point G is 4 m north of point F.

    Q75.What is the shortest distance between point C and point G?

    • A23 m
    • B15 m
    • C21 m
    • D19 m
    • E27 m

    Answer: (D) 19 m

    Take C as (0, 0): B (0, 9), A (-5, 9), D (12, 0), E (12, 15), F (0, 15), G (0, 19). C and G lie on the same north-south line, 19 m apart.

  2. Q76.In which direction is point D with respect to point A?

    • ANorth
    • BNorth-west
    • CNorth-east
    • DEast
    • ESouth-east

    Answer: (E) South-east

    Take C as (0, 0): B (0, 9), A (-5, 9), D (12, 0), E (12, 15), F (0, 15), G (0, 19). D is 17 m east and 9 m south of A, so D is south-east of A.

  3. Q77.In four of the following pairs, the second point lies in the same direction with respect to the first point. Which pair is the odd one out?

    • AF - D
    • BA - C
    • CB - E
    • DA - D
    • EG - E

    Answer: (C) B - E

    Take C as (0, 0): B (0, 9), A (-5, 9), D (12, 0), E (12, 15), F (0, 15), G (0, 19). D is south-east of A, C is south-east of A, E is south-east of G and D is south-east of F. E is north-east of B, so B - E is the odd one.

Reasoning - Seating Arrangement (Q78–85)

  1. Eight persons H, K, M, O, P, T, X and Y sit around a circular table facing the centre, not necessarily in this order. P sits second to the right of T. Exactly two persons sit between P and O. Exactly three persons sit between M and H. K sits immediately to the left of H. H sits second to the left of Y.

    Q78.What is the position of X with respect to Y?

    • ASecond to the right
    • BSecond to the left
    • CImmediate right
    • DThird to the right
    • EThird to the left

    Answer: (D) Third to the right

    Going clockwise (which is each person's left when facing the centre): H, K, O, X, M, P, Y, T. Counting to Y's right (anticlockwise): P, M, X. So X is third to the right of Y.

  2. Q79.How many persons sit between O and T when counted from the left of T?

    • AThree
    • BOne
    • CFour
    • DNone
    • ETwo

    Answer: (E) Two

    Going clockwise (which is each person's left when facing the centre): H, K, O, X, M, P, Y, T. Moving to T's left (clockwise) from T: H, K, then O. So two persons (H and K) sit between them.

  3. Q80.Who sits second to the right of X?

    • AK
    • BM
    • CT
    • DO
    • EY

    Answer: (A) K

    Going clockwise (which is each person's left when facing the centre): H, K, O, X, M, P, Y, T. To X's right (anticlockwise): O, then K.

  4. Q81.Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on their seats. Which pair does not belong to the group?

    • AX - T
    • BK - P
    • CK - O
    • DO - Y
    • EH - M

    Answer: (C) K - O

    Going clockwise (which is each person's left when facing the centre): H, K, O, X, M, P, Y, T. K-P, H-M, X-T and O-Y each sit exactly opposite each other. K and O are neighbours, so K - O is the odd pair.

  5. Q82.Who sits fourth to the left of Y?

    • AT
    • BO
    • CP
    • DX
    • EK

    Answer: (B) O

    Going clockwise (which is each person's left when facing the centre): H, K, O, X, M, P, Y, T. To Y's left (clockwise): T, H, K, O. O is fourth to the left (also directly opposite Y).

  6. Some persons sit in a row facing north. Exactly two persons sit between B and E. C sits immediately to the right of E. D sits at the extreme left end, and exactly three persons sit between D and C. Exactly four persons sit between A and C. The number of persons to the left of B is the same as the number of persons to the right of A.

    Q83.What is the position of B with respect to D?

    • ASixth to the right
    • BSecond to the left
    • CSecond to the right
    • DEighth to the left
    • EFifth to the right

    Answer: (A) Sixth to the right

    D is at the left end (position 1), so C is at position 5 and E at 4. B is three places from E: position 7 (position 1 is taken by D). A is five places from C: position 10. Persons left of B = 6, so persons right of A = 6, giving 16 persons in all. B is at 7 and D at 1, so B is sixth to the right of D.

  7. Q84.How many persons sit in the row?

    • A18
    • B15
    • C17
    • D16
    • E13

    Answer: (D) 16

    D is at the left end (position 1), so C is at position 5 and E at 4. B is three places from E: position 7 (position 1 is taken by D). A is five places from C: position 10. Persons left of B = 6, so persons right of A = 6, giving 16 persons in all. Total = 16.

  8. Q85.How many persons sit between A and D?

    • ANine
    • BSeven
    • CEight
    • DTen
    • ESix

    Answer: (C) Eight

    D is at the left end (position 1), so C is at position 5 and E at 4. B is three places from E: position 7 (position 1 is taken by D). A is five places from C: position 10. Persons left of B = 6, so persons right of A = 6, giving 16 persons in all. A is at 10 and D at 1, so 8 persons sit between them.

Reasoning - Alphanumeric Series (Q86–90)

  1. Study the arrangement below and answer the question. 2 # 4 5 $ * 8 3 ^ 9 2 7 1 & 1 6 % 4 9 3 @ 2 5

    Q86.How many symbols are immediately followed by an even digit?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • EMore than four

    Answer: (D) Four

    Symbols followed by an even digit: # 4, * 8, % 4, @ 2. ($ is followed by *, ^ by 9 and & by 1.) So four.

  2. Q87.Which element is 11th from the right end?

    • A2
    • B&
    • C7
    • D6
    • E1

    Answer: (E) 1

    From the right: 5, 2, @, 3, 9, 4, %, 6, 1, &, 1. The 11th element is 1 (the one just before &).

  3. Q88.How many odd digits are there between # and %?

    • AFour
    • BSix
    • CThree
    • DFive
    • ESeven

    Answer: (B) Six

    Between # and %: 4 5 $ * 8 3 ^ 9 2 7 1 & 1 6. Odd digits: 5, 3, 9, 7, 1, 1 = six.

  4. Q89.Which is the second symbol to the right of the third even digit from the left end?

    • A@
    • B%
    • C*
    • D$
    • E&

    Answer: (E) &

    Even digits from the left: 2, 4, 8. To the right of 8 the symbols are ^, then &. So the answer is &.

  5. Q90.How many digits are immediately preceded and immediately followed by a symbol?

    • ATwo
    • BThree
    • CFour
    • DOne
    • ENone

    Answer: (E) None

    Every digit next to a symbol on one side has a digit or an end on the other side (for example * 8 3 and & 1 6). No digit has a symbol on both sides.

Reasoning - Odd One Out (Q91–91)

  1. Q91.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

    • ALIO
    • BDFA
    • CVSY
    • DJGM
    • EROU

    Answer: (B) DFA

    Using letter positions: R(18) O(15) U(21), J(10) G(7) M(13), L(12) I(9) O(15) and V(22) S(19) Y(25) all follow -3 then +6. D(4) F(6) A(1) follows +2 then -5, so DFA is the odd one.

Reasoning - Word Formation (Q92–92)

  1. Q92.Using the 1st, 2nd, 4th and 8th letters from the left of the word CATEGORIZE, how many meaningful English words can be formed (each letter used once)? If no word can be formed, mark X; if more than one word can be formed, mark Y. Otherwise mark the second letter from the right of the word.

    • AC
    • BE
    • CA
    • DX
    • EY

    Answer: (D) X

    The letters are C (1st), A (2nd), E (4th) and I (8th). No meaningful English word can be made from A, C, E and I, so the answer is X.

Reasoning - Blood Relation (Q93–95)

  1. In a family of eight members, there are exactly three married couples and every married member's spouse is in the family. G is the mother-in-law of M. M is the father of only two children, V and B. D is the sister-in-law of V, and V is unmarried. H is the son of G. K has only one daughter. C is a male member of the family.

    Q93.How is C related to M?

    • AFather-in-law
    • BUncle
    • CFather
    • DCousin
    • EBrother-in-law

    Answer: (A) Father-in-law

    M's wife is G's daughter. V is unmarried, so D must be the wife of V's brother, which makes B a son married to D. Among the rest, only K can be M's wife, so K is G's daughter and V and B are K's children; K has only one daughter, so V is female. G's husband must be in the family; H is her son and M and B are married to K and D, so G's husband is C. So C and G are the grandparents, their children are K and H, and K's children are V and B. C is the father of M's wife K, so C is M's father-in-law.

  2. Q94.Who is K's daughter?

    • AG
    • BV
    • CD
    • DB
    • EEither B or V

    Answer: (B) V

    M's wife is G's daughter. V is unmarried, so D must be the wife of V's brother, which makes B a son married to D. Among the rest, only K can be M's wife, so K is G's daughter and V and B are K's children; K has only one daughter, so V is female. G's husband must be in the family; H is her son and M and B are married to K and D, so G's husband is C. So C and G are the grandparents, their children are K and H, and K's children are V and B. K's children are V and B; B is a son, so K's daughter is V.

  3. Q95.How is B related to H?

    • ANiece
    • BNephew
    • CSon-in-law
    • DDaughter-in-law
    • EGrandson

    Answer: (B) Nephew

    M's wife is G's daughter. V is unmarried, so D must be the wife of V's brother, which makes B a son married to D. Among the rest, only K can be M's wife, so K is G's daughter and V and B are K's children; K has only one daughter, so V is female. G's husband must be in the family; H is her son and M and B are married to K and D, so G's husband is C. So C and G are the grandparents, their children are K and H, and K's children are V and B. H is K's brother and B is K's son, so B is H's nephew.

Reasoning - Puzzle (Q96–100)

  1. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born on the same date in eight different months of the same year: February, March, April, May, June, July, October and November. No two were born in the same month. S was born in a month after June. Exactly three persons were born between S and T. Q was born immediately before T, but Q was not born in March. The number of persons born before Q is the same as the number born after P. Exactly two persons were born between R and P, and R was born before P. V was born immediately before U.

    Q96.Who was born in April?

    • AV
    • BW
    • CU
    • DQ
    • ET

    Answer: (A) V

    Final order: February Q, March T, April V, May U, June R, July S, October W, November P. V was born in April.

  2. Q97.How many persons were born between W and T?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    • ENone

    Answer: (D) Four

    Final order: February Q, March T, April V, May U, June R, July S, October W, November P. Between T (March) and W (October): V, U, R and S, so four persons.

  3. Q98.In which month was W born?

    • AFebruary
    • BJuly
    • CJune
    • DOctober
    • ENovember

    Answer: (D) October

    Final order: February Q, March T, April V, May U, June R, July S, October W, November P. W was born in October.

  4. Q99.Who was born immediately after the person born in May?

    • AP
    • BW
    • CR
    • DS
    • ET

    Answer: (C) R

    Final order: February Q, March T, April V, May U, June R, July S, October W, November P. U was born in May; the next person is R (June).

  5. Q100.Which of the following statements is/are true? I. Exactly one person was born between R and P. II. Exactly two persons were born before V. III. S was born before U.

    • AOnly I
    • BOnly III
    • COnly II
    • DOnly I and II
    • EOnly II and III

    Answer: (C) Only II

    Final order: February Q, March T, April V, May U, June R, July S, October W, November P. I is false (S and W are between R and P). II is true (Q and T). III is false (S in July, U in May).

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