Home/PYP/RRB Group D/27 November 2025, Shift 1
Official PaperCBT100 Questions · 90 Min

RRB Group D 2025 Question Paper 27 November Shift 1 with Answers

Exam date
27 November 2025
Shift
Shift 19:00 AM
Source
RRB answer key notice, CEN 08/2024 (17.02.2026)

RRBs opened the CBT questions, candidate responses and answer keys of CEN 08/2024 (CBT held 27.11.2025 to 10.02.2026) on 17.02.2026. Each paper here is one shift's response sheet with RRB's key.

Attempt online (timed, free)

Tip: attempt the paper first, then come back here to check every answer and solution.

General Science (Q1–25)

  1. Official paper: RRB Group D (Level 1, CEN 08/2024) CBT, held on 27 November 2025, Shift 1 (9:00 AM to 10:30 AM). Questions and the answer key are as on the RRB candidate response sheet (released with the answer keys on 17.02.2026). Explanations are written by BookOfExams; where the sheet’s key is clearly wrong we show the correct answer and say so in the solution. Pattern (CEN 08/2024, para 14.1): 100 questions, 90 minutes; +1 for a correct answer, −1/3 for a wrong one.

    Q1.Which of the following statements is correct?

    • AWork done can only be negative.
    • BWork done can be positive or negative depending on the direction of force.
    • CWork done does not depend on force or displacement.
    • DWork done can only be positive.

    Answer: (B) Work done can be positive or negative depending on the direction of force.

    Work done W = F·s·cos θ. It is positive when force and displacement are in the same direction (θ < 90°), negative when they are opposite (θ > 90°) and zero when they are perpendicular.

  2. Q2.Through which method of cell division are the diploid chromosomes divided into haploid gametes?

    • AMitosis
    • BBinary Fission
    • CAmitosis
    • DMeiosis

    Answer: (D) Meiosis

    Meiosis is reduction division: one diploid (2n) cell divides twice to give four haploid (n) gametes. Mitosis keeps the chromosome number unchanged.

  3. Q3.The power of a lens is defined as:

    • AThe reciprocal of its focal length in meters
    • BThe ratio of image distance to object distance
    • CThe product of its focal length and refractive index
    • DThe square of its focal length

    Answer: (A) The reciprocal of its focal length in meters

    Power of a lens P = 1/f, with f in metres; its SI unit is the dioptre (D). A lens of focal length 0.5 m has power 2 D.

  4. Q4.When a thick glass slab is placed over printed matter, the letters appear raised. This is due to ___________.

    • AScattering of light
    • BRefraction of light
    • CTotal internal reflection
    • DPolarization of light

    Answer: (B) Refraction of light

    Light from the letters bends (refracts) as it passes from glass into air, so the letters seem to lie closer than they are, i.e. raised. This is refraction.

  5. Q5.The motion of a satellite orbiting the Earth in a circular path at constant speed is a classic example of uniform circular motion. What property of this motion prevents its acceleration from being zero?

    • AThe total mechanical energy is conserved, necessitating acceleration.
    • BThe direction of motion changes continuously at every point, meaning the velocity is changing.
    • CThe object’s mass continually changes due to orbital dynamics.
    • DThe speed is too high for the gravitational force to sustain a constant velocity.

    Answer: (B) The direction of motion changes continuously at every point, meaning the velocity is changing.

    In uniform circular motion the speed is constant but the direction changes at every point, so velocity changes and there is a centripetal acceleration towards the centre.

  6. Q6.Asthma primarily affects which part of the respiratory system?

    • ADiaphragm
    • BBronchi and bronchioles
    • CTrachea
    • DAlveoli

    Answer: (B) Bronchi and bronchioles

    Asthma inflames and narrows the bronchi and bronchioles (airways), causing wheezing and breathlessness.

  7. Q7.Which of the following describes an example of uniform circular motion?

    • AA train moving on its track
    • BA car accelerating on its way
    • CA ball thrown vertically upwards
    • DA fan blade rotating at constant speed

    Answer: (D) A fan blade rotating at constant speed

    Uniform circular motion is motion on a circle at constant speed, e.g. a fan blade rotating at a constant rate. A train on a track, an accelerating car and a ball thrown up are not.

  8. Q8.During reproduction, why is it important to create DNA copies?

    • AFor blood circulation
    • BFor digestion
    • CFor inheritance of traits
    • DFor respiration

    Answer: (C) For inheritance of traits

    Copying DNA during reproduction passes the genetic information, and with it the traits, from parents to offspring; small copying errors also create variation.

  9. Q9.What happens when a naphthalene ball is burnt in a metal plate in open space?

    • AIt burns with a blue flame.
    • BIt burns with yellow flame with no deposit on the metal plate.
    • CIt burns with a yellow flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.
    • DIt burns with a blue flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.

    Answer: (C) It burns with a yellow flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.

    Naphthalene (C10H8) has a high carbon content and burns incompletely in air with a sooty yellow flame, leaving black carbon (soot) on the plate.

  10. Q10.When water and nutrients are available, algae grow and multiply rapidly by the process of _________.

    • Aspore formation
    • Bpollination
    • Cfragmentation
    • Dbudding

    Answer: (C) fragmentation

    Filamentous algae such as Spirogyra simply break into pieces when water and nutrients are plentiful; each piece grows into a new individual. This is fragmentation.

  11. Q11.A coil has a resistance of 44 Ω. If it is connected across a 220 V supply, what is the power consumed by the coil?

    • A5 W
    • B1100 W
    • C110 W
    • D0.2 W

    Answer: (B) 1100 W

    P = V²/R = 220² ÷ 44 = 48400 ÷ 44 = 1100 W.

  12. Q12.Which of the following options best describes the term Culture Fishery?

    • ACatching fishes from marine water
    • BCapturing fishes from artificial resources
    • CFarming of the fishes
    • DCapturing fishes from natural resources

    Answer: (C) Farming of the fishes

    Culture fishery means farming (rearing) fish in ponds or tanks, unlike capture fishery, where fish are caught from natural waters.

  13. Q13.A body is dropped from a height. If it falls for 3.0 s and g = 10 m/s², its final velocity (v) is ______________.

    • A10 m/s
    • B30 m/s
    • C40 m/s
    • D20 m/s

    Answer: (B) 30 m/s

    Starting from rest, v = u + gt = 0 + 10 × 3 = 30 m/s.

  14. Q14.What happens when a zinc rod is placed in aqueous copper sulphate solution?

    • AThe blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.
    • BThe temperature of the solution falls.
    • CHeat is required to start the reaction.
    • DNo chemical change observed.

    Answer: (A) The blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.

    Zinc is more reactive than copper and displaces it: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. The blue colour of copper sulphate fades as colourless zinc sulphate forms.

  15. Q15.The fractional atomic mass of chlorine is due to which of the following?

    • APresence of ions
    • BPresence of isotopes
    • CIts compound nature
    • DExperimental error

    Answer: (B) Presence of isotopes

    Chlorine occurs as two isotopes, Cl-35 (about 75%) and Cl-37 (about 25%). Their weighted average gives the fractional atomic mass 35.5 u.

  16. Q16.The functional group which does NOT contain oxygen hetero atom is:

    • Ahalo alkane
    • Bketone
    • Ccarboxylic acid
    • Dalcohol

    Answer: (A) halo alkane

    A haloalkane has a halogen (Cl, Br, I) as its functional group, with no oxygen. Ketones (C=O), carboxylic acids (–COOH) and alcohols (–OH) all contain oxygen.

  17. Q17.What is the main role of micelles in the cleansing action of soap?

    • ATo trap and remove oil and dirt from clothes
    • BTo reduce the hardness of water
    • CTo produce lather with water
    • DTo increase the surface tension of water

    Answer: (A) To trap and remove oil and dirt from clothes

    In a micelle the hydrophobic tails of soap molecules surround oily dirt and the ionic heads face the water, so the dirt is held in suspension and rinsed away.

  18. Q18.Which poultry are birds farmed to produce eggs?

    • AMilch
    • BCommon carp
    • CLayers
    • DBroilers

    Answer: (C) Layers

    Poultry birds reared for eggs are called layers; those reared for meat are broilers.

  19. Q19.Statement 1: The potential difference is measured in volts. Statement 2: One volt is equal to one newton per coulomb. Which of the following is true?

    • ABoth Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    • BOnly Statement 2 is correct.
    • CBoth Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    • DOnly Statement 1 is correct.

    Answer: (D) Only Statement 1 is correct.

    Statement 1 is true: potential difference is measured in volts. Statement 2 is false: 1 volt = 1 joule per coulomb (1 V = 1 J/C), not newton per coulomb.

  20. Q20.The frequency of a sound wave is 50 Hz. How much time will it take to complete one wave?

    • A50 s
    • B0.02 s
    • C0.2 s
    • D5 s

    Answer: (B) 0.02 s

    Time period T = 1/f = 1/50 = 0.02 s.

  21. Q21.Which of the following statements best explains the Law of Constant Proportions?

    • AElements are always found in random ratios in a compound.
    • BAtoms can be divided into smaller particles during a reaction.
    • CMass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
    • DA chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass.

    Answer: (D) A chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass.

    The law of constant proportions says a pure chemical compound always contains the same elements combined in the same fixed proportion by mass (e.g. water: H : O = 1 : 8).

  22. Q22.Which of the following is NOT used for expressing the concentration of a solution?

    • AVolume by Volume percentage of a solution
    • BVolume by Mass percentage of a solution
    • CMass by volume percentage of a solution
    • DMass by mass percentage of a solution

    Answer: (B) Volume by Mass percentage of a solution

    Concentration is expressed as mass by mass %, mass by volume % or volume by volume %. 'Volume by mass' percentage is not a standard way.

  23. Q23.Which of the following plant tissue performs photosynthesis?

    • AChlorenchyma
    • BSclerenchyma
    • CXylem
    • DPhloem

    Answer: (A) Chlorenchyma

    Chlorenchyma is parenchyma that contains chloroplasts and carries out photosynthesis. Sclerenchyma gives strength; xylem and phloem conduct water and food.

  24. Q24.Which of the following life processes is important to bring variation in species?

    • AHeterotrophic nutrition
    • BTransportation
    • CAutotrophic nutrition
    • DSexual reproduction

    Answer: (D) Sexual reproduction

    Sexual reproduction combines DNA from two parents, and meiosis reshuffles it, so offspring show variation, which helps species adapt.

  25. Q25.Which of the following metals is extracted in the middle of the activity series?

    • AGold
    • BPotassium
    • CIron
    • DSodium

    Answer: (C) Iron

    Metals in the middle of the activity series (zinc, iron, lead) are obtained by roasting or calcination followed by reduction. Gold is at the bottom; sodium and potassium at the top.

Mathematics (Q26–50)

  1. Q26.P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 98 cm, PB = 91 cm and PC = 21 cm, then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:

    • A38
    • B41
    • C46
    • D42

    Answer: (D) 42

    For any point P inside a rectangle ABCD, PA² + PC² = PB² + PD². So PD² = 98² + 21² − 91² = 9604 + 441 − 8281 = 1764, PD = 42 cm.

  2. Q27.The vertices of a convex pentagon (in order) are P(0,0),  Q(6,0),  R(8,3),  S(4,7),  T(0,4). Find the area of the pentagon.

    • A42 sq. units
    • B36 sq. units
    • C39 sq. units
    • D45 sq. units

    Answer: (C) 39 sq. units

    Shoelace formula for (0,0), (6,0), (8,3), (4,7), (0,4): sum of (xᵢyᵢ₊₁ − xᵢ₊₁yᵢ) = 0 + 18 + 44 + 16 + 0 = 78. Area = 78 ÷ 2 = 39 sq. units.

  3. Q28.A metal rod is divided into three parts, A, B and C. The lengths of A and B are in the ratio 9 : 20, and the lengths of C and B are in the ratio 5 : 11. If the difference between the lengths of A and C is 10 cm, find the total length (in cm) of the metal rod.

    • A4202
    • B4199
    • C4190
    • D4180

    Answer: (C) 4190

    Make B common: A : B = 9 : 20 = 99 : 220 and C : B = 5 : 11 = 100 : 220. So A : B : C = 99 : 220 : 100. C − A = 1 part = 10 cm, so the total = 419 × 10 = 4190 cm.

  4. Q29.Soniya got married 15 years ago. Her present age is 8/5 times her age at the time of her marriage. Her sister was 8 years younger to her at the time of her marriage. Find the present age of her sister.

    • A32 years
    • B24 years
    • C40 years
    • D28 years

    Answer: (A) 32 years

    Let her age at marriage be x. Then x + 15 = (8/5)x → x = 25, so Soniya is 40 now. Her sister was 25 − 8 = 17 then and is 17 + 15 = 32 now.

  5. Q30.The average age of 26 students of a class is 26 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 27 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:

    • A54
    • B50
    • C57
    • D53

    Answer: (D) 53

    Teacher's age = 27 × 27 − 26 × 26 = 729 − 676 = 53 years.

  6. Q31.If Δ × 2.2 + 0.33 × 3/4 − 1/20 × 0.55 = 0.99, then the value of Δ is:

    • A0.35
    • B1
    • C0.25
    • D0

    Answer: (A) 0.35

    0.33 × 3/4 = 0.2475 and 1/20 × 0.55 = 0.0275. So Δ × 2.2 = 0.99 − 0.2475 + 0.0275 = 0.77, giving Δ = 0.77 ÷ 2.2 = 0.35.

  7. Q32.If 20% of a number is added to 90, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same number is:

    • A90
    • B120
    • C110
    • D100

    Answer: (A) 90

    If 20% of N + 90 = N, then 0.8N = 90. So 80% of the number is 90 (N = 112.5).

  8. Q33.Smriti goes to a shopping mall at a speed of 21 km/hr and returns at a speed of 69 km/hr. Find her average speed (in km/hr) for the entire trip.

    • A40.2
    • B30.3
    • C32.2
    • D23.4

    Answer: (C) 32.2

    For equal distances, average speed = 2ab ÷ (a + b) = 2 × 21 × 69 ÷ 90 = 32.2 km/hr.

  9. Q34.An article was bought for ₹8,900. Its price was marked up by 40%. Thereafter, it was sold at a discount of 5% on the marked price. What was the profit percentage on the transaction?

    • A32%
    • B34%
    • C35%
    • D33%

    Answer: (D) 33%

    Marked price = 1.40 × cost; selling price = 0.95 × 1.40 = 1.33 × cost. Profit = 33%.

  10. Q35.If p = 6, q = −3, then the value of p³ – 3p² + 3p + 3q + 3q² + q³ is:

    • A–61
    • B61
    • C117
    • D–117

    Answer: (C) 117

    p³ − 3p² + 3p + 3q + 3q² + q³ = (p³ − 3p² + 3p − 1) + (q³ + 3q² + 3q + 1) = (p − 1)³ + (q + 1)³ = 5³ + (−2)³ = 125 − 8 = 117.

  11. Q36.Which of the following ratios is equivalent to 3 : 2?

    • A53 : 38
    • B51 : 37
    • C52 : 34
    • D54 : 36

    Answer: (D) 54 : 36

    54 : 36 = (54 ÷ 18) : (36 ÷ 18) = 3 : 2. The other ratios do not reduce to 3 : 2.

  12. Q37.The cost of a washing machine is 40% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 52% and that of the TV decreases by 76%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 5 washing machines and 2 TVs?

    • ADecrease by 3%
    • BDecrease by 2%
    • CIncrease by 0.8%
    • DIncrease by 5%

    Answer: (C) Increase by 0.8%

    Let the TV cost 100, so the washing machine costs 60. Before: 5 × 60 + 2 × 100 = 500. After: 5 × 91.2 + 2 × 24 = 456 + 48 = 504. Change = +4/500 = increase of 0.8%.

  13. Q38.If tan θ = 12/5, what is the value of sec θ?

    • A13/12
    • B5/13
    • C12/5
    • D13/5

    Answer: (D) 13/5

    tan θ = 12/5 means perpendicular 12 and base 5, so the hypotenuse is √(144 + 25) = 13. sec θ = hypotenuse/base = 13/5.

  14. Q39.The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 542 cm². Its curved surface area is two-fifth of its total surface area. Find the curved surface area of the cylinder.

    • A315.4 cm²
    • B212.5 cm²
    • C513.2 cm²
    • D216.8 cm²

    Answer: (D) 216.8 cm²

    Curved surface area = 2/5 × 542 = 216.8 cm².

  15. Q40.Two numbers have an HCF of 18 and an LCM of 1512. If one of the numbers is 126, find the positive difference between these number.

    • A126
    • B90
    • C216
    • D256

    Answer: (B) 90

    Product of the numbers = HCF × LCM = 18 × 1512 = 27216. Other number = 27216 ÷ 126 = 216. Difference = 216 − 126 = 90.

  16. Q41.1/20 is what percentage of 10/40?

    • A30%
    • B40%
    • C35%
    • D20%

    Answer: (D) 20%

    (1/20) ÷ (10/40) × 100 = (1/20) × 4 × 100 = 20%.

  17. Q42.In statistics out of 100, the marks of 21 students in final exams are as 90, 95, 95, 94, 90, 85, 84, 83, 85, 81, 92, 93, 82, 78, 79, 81, 80, 82, 85, 76, 85, then the mode of data is:

    • A84
    • B83
    • C87
    • D85

    Answer: (D) 85

    85 occurs four times (more than any other mark), so the mode is 85.

  18. Q43.A fruit vendor bought 150 mangoes. He sold them at such a price that the selling price of 120 mangoes equals the cost price of 150 mangoes. Find his profit percentage.

    • A30%
    • B35%
    • C25%
    • D20%

    Answer: (C) 25%

    SP of 120 = CP of 150, so the profit on 120 mangoes equals the cost of 30 mangoes. Profit % = 30/120 × 100 = 25%.

  19. Q44.Three pipes, A, B and C, can fill a tank from empty to full in 40 minutes, 20 minutes and 30 minutes, respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical solutions P, Q and R, respectively. What is the proportion of solution Q in the liquid in the tank after 9 minutes?

    • A3/4
    • B6/13
    • C7/13
    • D3/13

    Answer: (B) 6/13

    In any time the pipes deliver in the ratio 1/40 : 1/20 : 1/30 = 3 : 6 : 4. So solution Q is 6/13 of the liquid at every moment, including after 9 minutes.

  20. Q45.Two-fifth of a container is filled with blue liquid, one-third of the remaining container is filled with black liquid, five-sixth of the still remaining container is filled with yellow liquid and the remaining 4.2 litres is of white colour. Find the total capacity of the container.

    • A72 litres
    • B63 litres
    • C60 litres
    • D78 litres

    Answer: (B) 63 litres

    Blue takes 2/5, leaving 3/5. Black takes 1/3 of that (1/5), leaving 2/5. Yellow takes 5/6 of that, leaving 1/6 × 2/5 = 1/15 of the container = 4.2 L. Capacity = 4.2 × 15 = 63 litres.

  21. Q46.A 325 m long train overtakes a man moving at a speed of 5 km/hr (in the same direction) in 45 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to completely cross another 440 m long train, moving in the opposite direction at a speed of 20 km/hr?

    • A54
    • B40
    • C52
    • D51

    Answer: (A) 54

    Relative speed for the man = 325/45 m/s = 26 km/h, so the train runs at 26 + 5 = 31 km/h. Against the 20 km/h train the relative speed is 51 km/h = 85/6 m/s. Time = (325 + 440) ÷ (85/6) = 54 s.

  22. Q47.Simplify: [3¼ ÷ {1¼ − 0.5(2½ − 1/12)}] ÷ (5 × 1/15)

    • A234
    • B134
    • C434
    • D334

    Answer: (A) 234

    2½ − 1/12 = 29/12; × 0.5 = 29/24. 1¼ − 29/24 = 30/24 − 29/24 = 1/24. 3¼ ÷ 1/24 = 78. The denominator is 5 × 1/15 = 1/3, so the value is 78 × 3 = 234.

  23. Q48.A and B working together can do a piece of work in 6 days. B alone can do the same work in 12 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?

    • A12
    • B25
    • C24
    • D27

    Answer: (C) 24

    A's one-day work = 1/6 − 1/12 = 1/12, so A alone needs 12 days for the work and 24 days for double the work.

  24. Q49.A scheme like ‘Buy 6, Get 4 Free’ on the same kind of articles with the same MRP attracts a _____ % discount.

    • A67.67
    • B40
    • C41
    • D66.67

    Answer: (B) 40

    You pay for 6 and get 10 articles, so 4 out of 10 are free: discount = 4/10 × 100 = 40%.

  25. Q50.The amount on a sum of ₹6,800 at 15% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years' time, will be:

    • A₹7,996
    • B₹8,641
    • C₹9,393
    • D₹8,993

    Answer: (D) ₹8,993

    Amount = 6800 × (1.15)² = 6800 × 1.3225 = ₹8,993.

General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q51–80)

  1. Q51.In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’, A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is O related to V if ‘O + P # T @ G - V’?

    • AWife's father's mother
    • BWife's mother
    • CWife's father's sister
    • DWife's sister

    Answer: (C) Wife's father's sister

    O + P: O is P's sister. P # T: P is T's father. T @ G: T is G's brother, so P is also G's father. G − V: G is V's wife. So O is the sister of V's wife's father: wife's father's sister.

  2. Q52.If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 84 − 6 ÷ 371 + 648 × 8 = ?

    • A797
    • B794
    • C799
    • D795

    Answer: (B) 794

    After swapping the signs: 84 × 6 + 371 − 648 ÷ 8 = 504 + 371 − 81 = 794.

  3. Q53.In a certain code language, ‘OVAL’ is coded as ‘5294’ and ‘LOVE’ is coded as ‘8549’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?

    • A8
    • B5
    • C9
    • D4

    Answer: (A) 8

    OVAL = 5294 and LOVE = 8549 share O, V and L, which take the common digits 5, 9 and 4. The extra letters are A (2) and E (8). So E = 8.

  4. Q54.Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single-digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 6 5 8 2 2 1 8 2 9 8 4 7 4 8 2 4 3 1 4 1 2 7 2 6 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square and also immediately followed by a perfect square? (Note: 1 is also a perfect square.)

    • ATwo
    • BFour
    • CThree
    • DOne

    Answer: (B) Four

    Single-digit perfect squares are 1, 4 and 9. Numbers with a perfect square on both sides: 8 in 9 8 4, 7 in 4 7 4, 3 in 4 3 1 and 4 in 1 4 1. That makes four.

  5. Q55.What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 61 85 109 133 157 ?

    • A179
    • B183
    • C181
    • D185

    Answer: (C) 181

    The numbers increase by 24 each time: 157 + 24 = 181.

  6. Q56.Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

    • AOSN
    • BGKE
    • CNRL
    • DLPJ

    Answer: (A) OSN

    In GKE, NRL and LPJ the first letter goes +4 and then −6 (G→K→E, N→R→L, L→P→J). In OSN it goes +4 then −5 (O→S→N), so OSN is the odd one.

  7. Q57.Alex starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 13 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only, unless specified.)

    • A8 km to the north
    • B7 km to the north
    • C8 km to the south
    • D7 km to the south

    Answer: (B) 7 km to the north

    Take A as (0, 0). East 8 → (8, 0); left (north) 6 → (8, 6); left (west) 17 → (−9, 6); left (south) 13 → (−9, −7); left (east) 9 → (0, −7). P is 7 km south of A, so he must drive 7 km to the north.

  8. Q58.What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 991 989 985 979 971 ?

    • A967
    • B963
    • C961
    • D969

    Answer: (C) 961

    The differences are −2, −4, −6, −8, so the next is −10: 971 − 10 = 961.

  9. Q59.If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 173 − 3 ÷ 282 + 164 × 4 = ?

    • A769
    • B761
    • C760
    • D766

    Answer: (C) 760

    After swapping the signs: 173 × 3 + 282 − 164 ÷ 4 = 519 + 282 − 41 = 760.

  10. Q60.UI 12 is related to YK -2 in a certain way. In the same way, OL 9 is related to SN -5. To which of the following is PQ 15 related, following the same logic?

    • AST 3
    • BTT 3
    • CSS 1
    • DTS 1

    Answer: (D) TS 1

    First letter +4 (U→Y, O→S), second letter +2 (I→K, L→N) and the number −14 (12→−2, 9→−5). So P→T, Q→S and 15 → 1: TS 1.

  11. Q61.Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 8 $ 3 Ω 9 % 4 6 7 1 * £ 5 # 2 + @ & (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another symbol?

    • A4
    • B3
    • C1
    • D2

    Answer: (D) 2

    Symbols with a number just before and another symbol just after: * in 1 * £ and + in 2 + @. That makes 2.

  12. Q62.In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. URIC - CRUI - RIUC KIDS - SIKD - IDKS

    • ANAVY - YANV - VANY
    • BOPEN - OEPN - NEPO
    • CFADE - EAFD - ADFE
    • DMALE - AMLE - EALM

    Answer: (C) FADE - EAFD - ADFE

    From the first word (positions 1234): second word = 4213 and third word = 2314. URIC → CRUI → RIUC and KIDS → SIKD → IDKS. FADE → EAFD → ADFE follows the same rule.

  13. Q63.In a certain code language, ‘house sip head’ is coded as ‘bm ma px’ and ‘head wood robot’ is coded as ‘pz bm ey’. How is ‘head’ coded in the given language?

    • Ama
    • Bbm
    • Cpz
    • Dpx

    Answer: (B) bm

    'head' is the only word common to both phrases, and 'bm' is the only code common to both codes, so head = bm.

  14. Q64.Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (14 , 42, 3) (12, 60, 5)

    • A(15, 45, 4)
    • B(11, 55, 6)
    • C(13 , 39 , 3)
    • D(16, 42, 2)

    Answer: (C) (13 , 39 , 3)

    In each set, first × third = second: 14 × 3 = 42 and 12 × 5 = 60. Only (13, 39, 3) fits: 13 × 3 = 39.

  15. Q65.Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 6 5 8 8 5 4 7 7 4 2 7 9 2 2 5 7 4 8 8 2 1 8 9 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?

    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CNone
    • DThree

    Answer: (C) None

    Odd digits come in pairs at most (7 7, 7 9, 5 7) and every such pair has an even digit on its outer side, so no odd digit has odd digits on both sides. The answer is none.

  16. Q66.What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series, based on the English alphabetical order? RJV QIU PHT OGS ?

    • ANHT
    • BNFR
    • CPFR
    • DPHT

    Answer: (B) NFR

    Each letter moves one place back: R→Q→P→O→N, J→I→H→G→F and V→U→T→S→R. The next term is NFR.

  17. Q67.Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: Some hats are caps. No cap is a vest. Conclusions: (I) Some hats are vests. (II) Some caps are hats.

    • ABoth conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
    • BOnly conclusion (II) follows.
    • CNeither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
    • DOnly conclusion (I) follows.

    Answer: (B) Only conclusion (II) follows.

    Some hats are caps, so some caps are hats (II follows by conversion). No cap is a vest, but the hats that are not caps may or may not be vests, so I does not follow.

  18. Q68.Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people sit to the right of A. Only five people sit to the left of B. F is the immediate neighbour of G and E. C sits second to the left of E. How many people sit to the left of G?

    • AThree
    • BOne
    • CFour
    • DTwo

    Answer: (C) Four

    Five people to the right of A puts A 2nd; five to the left of B puts B 6th. F sits between G and E and C is second to the left of E, which fits only as C A E F G B D. Four people sit to the left of G.

  19. Q69.Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

    • AUTR
    • BIHF
    • CZZW
    • DNMK

    Answer: (C) ZZW

    UTR, IHF and NMK go −1 then −2 (U→T→R, I→H→F, N→M→K). ZZW goes 0 then −3, so ZZW does not belong.

  20. Q70.Madhur ranked 58th from the top and 6th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?

    • A61
    • B64
    • C63
    • D62

    Answer: (C) 63

    Total = 58 + 6 − 1 = 63 students.

  21. Q71.If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will be come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 15 A 3 B 10 C 8 D 12 = ?

    • A46
    • B47
    • C44
    • D45

    Answer: (A) 46

    Replacing the letters: 15 ÷ 3 × 10 + 8 − 12 = 5 × 10 + 8 − 12 = 46.

  22. Q72.Seven people B, C, D, I, J, K and L are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two people sit to the right of C. Only two people sit between C and B. Only two people sit between D and K. Only three people sits between C and D. J sits to the immediate right of I. How many people sit(s) to the right of L?

    • AThree
    • BFour
    • COne
    • DTwo

    Answer: (B) Four

    C is 5th from the left (two to its right). Three people between C and D puts D 1st; two between C and B puts B 2nd; two between D and K puts K 4th. I and J must be together on the right (6th, 7th), leaving L 3rd: D B L K C I J. Four people sit to the right of L.

  23. Q73.Ajay starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards the west. He then takes a right turn, drives 8 km, then turns left and drives 7 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 8 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degrees turns only, unless specified.)

    • A7 km towards north
    • B11 km towards west
    • C25 km towards east
    • D16 km towards east

    Answer: (C) 25 km towards east

    Take A as (0, 0). West 16 → (−16, 0); right (north) 8 → (−16, 8); left (west) 7 → (−23, 8); left (south) 8 → (−23, 0); right (west) 2 → (−25, 0). He must drive 25 km towards the east.

  24. Q74.Radhika ranked 21st from the top and 7th from the bottom in her class. How many students are there in the class?

    • A19
    • B20
    • C27
    • D28

    Answer: (C) 27

    Total = 21 + 7 − 1 = 27 students.

  25. Q75.Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? HBE22 ICF29 JDG36 KEH43 ?

    • ALFI51
    • BLFJ50
    • CLFI50
    • DLFJ51

    Answer: (C) LFI50

    The letters move forward by one each time (H I J K → L, B C D E → F, E F G H → I) and the number increases by 7 (22, 29, 36, 43 → 50): LFI50.

  26. Q76.What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 616 610 612 606 608 ?

    • A602
    • B601
    • C603
    • D604

    Answer: (A) 602

    The pattern alternates −6, +2: 616 − 6 = 610, +2 = 612, −6 = 606, +2 = 608, −6 = 602.

  27. Q77.O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of P. Only three people sit between P and W. Only one person sits between W and X. R sits to the immediate left of O. Y is not an immediate neighbour of W. How many people sit to the right of Q?

    • AThree
    • BFour
    • COne
    • DTwo

    Answer: (C) One

    P is 3rd from the left. Three people between P and W puts W 7th, so X is 5th. R is immediately left of O, so they take 1st and 2nd. Y cannot be next to W, so Y is 4th and Q 6th: R O P Y X Q W. One person sits to the right of Q.

  28. Q78.RR 4 is related to UQ −14 in a certain way. In the same way, II 8 is related to LH −10. To which of the given options is MO 12 related, following the same logic?

    • APN −6
    • BHY −5
    • CGT −2
    • DNH 9

    Answer: (A) PN −6

    First letter +3 (R→U, I→L), second letter −1 (R→Q, I→H) and the number −18 (4→−14, 8→−10). So M→P, O→N and 12 → −6: PN −6.

  29. Q79.Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: Some pizzas are cupcakes. All buns are cupcakes. Conclusions: (I) Some pizzas are buns. (II) All cupcakes are buns.

    • AOnly conclusion (II) follows.
    • BBoth conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
    • COnly conclusion (I) follows.
    • DNeither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

    Answer: (D) Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

    Some pizzas are cupcakes and all buns are cupcakes, but pizzas and buns need not overlap, so I does not follow. 'All buns are cupcakes' does not mean all cupcakes are buns, so II does not follow.

  30. Q80.Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) 2 8 2 3 2 7 9 3 5 4 6 8 9 4 4 7 8 7 5 4 3 5 5 6 2 9 8 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?

    • A3
    • B5
    • C4
    • D6

    Answer: (A) 3

    Odd numbers with an odd number on both sides: 9 in 7 9 3, 3 in 9 3 5 and 5 in 3 5 5. That makes 3.

General Awareness and Current Affairs (Q81–100)

  1. Q81.On 24 May 2025, the order of which High Court was overturned by the Supreme Court and ruled that denying maternity leave for a third child violates a woman's constitutional right, reinforcing her dignity and reproductive freedom?

    • AAllahabad High Court
    • BHyderabad High Court
    • CBombay High Court
    • DMadras High Court

    Answer: (D) Madras High Court

    On 23–24 May 2025 the Supreme Court set aside a Madras High Court ruling and held that denying maternity leave to a woman for her third child violated her rights to dignity and reproductive choice under Article 21.

  2. Q82.Which of the following new digital facilities was launched in May 2025 by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment during the ‘Ageing with Dignity’ event?

    • ASenior Citizens Welfare Portal
    • BDigital Life Certificate Platform
    • CEmployment Exchange Portal for Senior Citizens
    • DOne-Stop Senior Citizens Services Portal

    Answer: (A) Senior Citizens Welfare Portal

    The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the Senior Citizens Welfare Portal at the 'Ageing with Dignity' event in May 2025, a single window for schemes and services for senior citizens.

  3. Q83.In 2025, which city in Maharashtra has achieved 100% segregation, collection and processing of sanitary and biomedical waste, handling an average of 300 to 350 kg of sanitary waste daily?

    • ANagpur
    • BKarad
    • CNasik
    • DPune

    Answer: (B) Karad

    Karad in Satara district, Maharashtra, was reported in 2025 to have achieved 100% segregation, collection and processing of sanitary and biomedical waste (about 300–350 kg a day).

  4. Q84.Who authored the book 'Test Cricket: A History', released in 2025?

    • ATim Wigmore
    • BRamachandra Guha
    • CMichael Atherton
    • DGideon Haigh

    Answer: (A) Tim Wigmore

    'Test Cricket: A History' (2025) was written by the British cricket journalist Tim Wigmore.

  5. Q85.Which chess player, besides Gukesh, received the Arjuna Award in 2025?

    • AHarika Dronavalli
    • BVantika Agrawal
    • CKoneru Humpy
    • DPentala Harikrishna

    Answer: (B) Vantika Agrawal

    Vantika Agrawal received the Arjuna Award (for 2024, presented in January 2025) for chess. Note: D. Gukesh received the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna that year, not the Arjuna Award, so the question's wording is loose; the intended answer is Vantika Agrawal.

  6. Q86.Which of the following documentaries did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launch to explain its functions to the public in June 2025?

    • ARBI Unlocked: Beyond the Rupee
    • BFinancial Literacy A2Z
    • CMy RBI Story
    • DRBI: Money Simplified

    Answer: (A) RBI Unlocked: Beyond the Rupee

    In June 2025 the RBI released the documentary 'RBI Unlocked: Beyond the Rupee' to explain its role and functions to the public.

  7. Q87.Which Indian Ministry launched the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) on 26 May 2025 to provide weather predictions with a 6-km resolution?

    • AMinistry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    • BMinistry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
    • CMinistry of Earth Sciences
    • DMinistry of Defence

    Answer: (C) Ministry of Earth Sciences

    The Ministry of Earth Sciences launched the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) on 26 May 2025. Developed by IITM Pune, it gives forecasts at about 6 km resolution.

  8. Q88.Which startup was selected in April 2025 to build India’s first sovereign Indic LLM under the IndiaAI Mission?

    • AWadhwani AI
    • BPeople+AI
    • CSarvam AI
    • DAI4 Bharat

    Answer: (C) Sarvam AI

    Sarvam AI (Bengaluru) was selected in April 2025 under the IndiaAI Mission to build India's first sovereign foundational large language model.

  9. Q89.As reported in May 2025, the study by Climate Trends, a Delhi-based research consultancy, examined NASA satellite data of the Himalayan glaciers from 2000-2023 to evaluate the impact of which of the following on Himalayan snow?

    • AOzone
    • BSulfate Aerosols
    • CBlack Carbon
    • DMineral Dust Particles

    Answer: (C) Black Carbon

    The Climate Trends study (May 2025) used NASA satellite data for 2000–2023 to examine how black carbon deposited on Himalayan snow raises its temperature and speeds up melting.

  10. Q90.The National Conference on Good Governance, organised by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) was held in which of the following places in January 2025?

    • AGandhinagar
    • BVaranasi
    • CBhopal
    • DJaipur

    Answer: (A) Gandhinagar

    DARPG held the National Conference on Good Governance at Gandhinagar, Gujarat, on 30–31 January 2025.

  11. Q91.What was the theme of the 78th World Health Assembly, 2025, held in Geneva in May 2025?

    • AHealth for All: Building Resilient Systems
    • BAdvancing Equity in Global Health
    • COne World for Health
    • DUniversal Health Coverage: A Global Need

    Answer: (C) One World for Health

    The 78th World Health Assembly (Geneva, May 2025) had the theme 'One World for Health'.

  12. Q92.As announced by the Government of India, as on 7 July 2025, how many biotech startups does India have, compared to just 50 a decade ago?

    • ANearly 9000
    • B8050
    • CNearly 11,000
    • D7000

    Answer: (C) Nearly 11,000

    In July 2025 the government said India had nearly 11,000 biotech start-ups, against about 50 a decade earlier.

  13. Q93.Which of the following awards recognises children’s book writers from 22 languages?

    • ASahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar
    • BSahitya Ratna
    • CPadma Shri
    • DBal Sahitya Puraskar

    Answer: (D) Bal Sahitya Puraskar

    Children's literature is honoured by the Sahitya Akademi's Bal Sahitya Puraskar. The Yuva Puraskar is for writers aged 35 or below, not for children's books. Note: RRB's answer key on the response sheet marks option A (Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar); that key is wrong, so we show the correct answer, D.

  14. Q94.On 16 May 2025, the Supreme Court invalidated the Indian Government's orders passed in which years, allowing ex-post facto environmental clearances?

    • A2009 and 2015
    • B2012 and 2014
    • C2017 and 2021
    • D2006 and 2011

    Answer: (C) 2017 and 2021

    On 16 May 2025 the Supreme Court (Vanashakti case) struck down the Centre's 2017 notification and 2021 office memorandum that allowed ex-post facto environmental clearances.

  15. Q95.Where did the chemical factory blast occur on 30 June 2025?

    • ANizamabad
    • BVijayawada
    • CWarangal
    • DSangareddy

    Answer: (D) Sangareddy

    On 30 June 2025 a reactor blast at Sigachi Industries' pharmaceutical unit in Pashamylaram, Sangareddy district, Telangana, killed many workers.

  16. Q96.Which state became the third Indian state to be recognised as fully functionally literate, under the ULLAS – New India Literacy Programme, in June 2025?

    • AKarnataka
    • BTripura
    • CAssam
    • DTelangana

    Answer: (B) Tripura

    In June 2025 Tripura was declared fully functionally literate under ULLAS, after Mizoram and Goa, making it the third state.

  17. Q97.Which of the following shifted its Andhra Pradesh regional office to Vijayawada, inaugurating the new premises on 16 June 2025?

    • ABank of Baroda
    • BSecurities and Exchange Board of India
    • CReserve Bank of India
    • DLife Insurance Corporation of India

    Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India

    On 16 June 2025 RBI Deputy Governor T. Rabi Sankar inaugurated the Reserve Bank's new Andhra Pradesh Regional Office in Vijayawada; it earlier functioned from Hyderabad.

  18. Q98.India set a new Guinness World Record in 2025 for the largest human formation of which of the following symbols?

    • AAshoka Chakra
    • BOlympic rings
    • CHeart shape
    • DPeace symbol

    Answer: (A) Ashoka Chakra

    On 24 January 2025 about 5,000 students of Sri Manakula Vinayagar Engineering College, Puducherry, set a Guinness World Record for the largest human formation of the Ashoka Chakra.

  19. Q99.India won the ICC Women’s U19 T20 World Cup 2025 by defeating which country in the final?

    • ASri Lanka
    • BAustralia
    • CSouth Africa
    • DEngland

    Answer: (C) South Africa

    India beat South Africa by 9 wickets in the final of the ICC Women's U19 T20 World Cup 2025 in Kuala Lumpur (2 February 2025).

  20. Q100.Which sport had the most Arjuna Award recipients in January 2025?

    • APara-Athletics
    • BShooting
    • CHockey
    • DAthletics

    Answer: (A) Para-Athletics

    Of the Arjuna Awards (for 2024) presented in January 2025, 17 went to para-athletes, more than any other sport.

Practise this paper under exam conditions

100 questions, 90-minute timer, negative marking and a score report.

Attempt online

Attempt one section of this paper

All RRB Group D previous year papers

Related features